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Can Jewish law be fulfilled?

james2ko

Well-Known Member
And more dishonesty. I don't care that it was made public. Anyone who has read what I've written will clearly see that I don't support your point of view. But I do acknowledge that a Christian such as yourself can make a good point from time to time.

Relooking over that post, I'm assuming I probably just read the first sentence or so, which makes it look as if you were saying that the Jewish law is not a curse. If that is what you are saying, then yes, that is a good point. If I misunderstood you, then no, its a horrible point. Either way, it doesn't matter.

Feel better? Now that you got that off your chest. Let's get back to business.

Maybe you want to go back and see why I stated what I did. The content in question is some which you have refused to address because you stated "no he didn't, oh yes he did," type of point. This is what I was referring to:

Here is the post in question:

Isaiah 7:14 has nothing to do with Jesus or the Messiah. It dealt with a prophecy concerning that time period, not the future. Reading the rest of the following verses really shows this. As for Isaiah 9:6, again, can't be Jesus. Jesus never reigned on the throne of David, which verse 7 goes on to state. Neither have to do with Jesus. Which becomes exceptionally clear when they are read in context. Jesus wasn't buried like a criminal. He might have died as a criminal, but being put into a rich man's grave is not how a criminal was buried.It also clearly indicates that he did sin. Thus, one of the two have to be incorrect.

Does it ring a bell? Jesus' sinless state was one of the points addressed earlier in the thread.

Twisting the evidence is not a way to in anything. It is simply dishonest.

It is the preferred method of atheists/agnostics. Not Christians.

Finally, I'm point to scripture. You can try to run around it as much as you want, but until you actually address it, there is no reason to deny that the scripture I pointed out shows that Jesus sinned. And again, the fact that the Bible also says something else only supports another point I've made; that the Bible contradicts itself.

Running around? I refuted your sinful Jesus fallacy earlier in the thread and put it to rest. Yet you continue to bring it up. Did I say something to stir your conscience?

Show me the contradiction. Attacking me will not make your position any stronger. Not understanding me; and I think that you're doing so on purpose, does not make your position any stronger. As have I. Yet, instead of actually really addressing the subject, you just repeated yourself again.

I'm repeating myself because you keep asking me to...lol...I'll spare you this time ok..

As for discussing the other post, I see no reason to. You won't even enter into an honest discussion here.

I'm not letting you off the hook that easy. Since you claim I've been sidetracking, I'll get back on track and discuss the verse in question: What is the "curse of the law"?

Galatians 3:13 Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us, for it is written: "Cursed is everyone who is hung on a tree."

All the laws are called commandments. There are countless other Jews before and after Jesus who referred to the Laws as commandments. The Bible refers to the Laws as commandments. So really, all you're showing is that you are either purposely misunderstanding the Bible, or you're truly ignorant of what the Bible says. Neither one helps your position. Again, Jesus is referring to all of the commandments, to all of the Laws.

The 600+ laws fell into 3 major categories. Moral, Civil, and ceremonial. Many of them overlapped. While the Jews probably thought of all of them as a package, all coming from God, they likely made certain mental distinctions.

For example, the 10 commandments, unlike the other laws, were directly spoken by God and placed in the ark of the convenant setting them apart as especially important. The civil laws, statutes, and judgments were all based on the moral law providing further clarification.

The ceremonial law also stemmed from the moral law in that it was only needed because the moral law was broken. The context will determined which law or commandment is being addressed. The context in Mat 5, is undeniably referring to the 10 commandments--The Moral Law.

Just read Romans. Chapter 8 is a good place to start. Even Chapter 7 begins to identify a distinction of having to follow the law, and not. I'm not going to take some verses out of context as you have. Because in this case, it is dishonest, and does not portray what Paul is saying.

So if you feel I'm taking Rom 7:12-13 out of context, you must obviously have the correct context. Please share your interpretation.

Rom 7:12-13 Therefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy and just and good. 13 Has then what is good become death to me? Certainly not! But sin, that it might appear sin, was producing death in me through what is good, so that sin through the commandment might become exceedingly sinful.​

On another note, If you haven't noticed, I have yet to reply to poisonshady or blacknights post on the OT messiah. I've been saving it for our one on one. You ready?
 
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Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
What gives you the impression that the prophets didn't understand all that they wrote?

Zechariah 4:1-5 "And the angel who was speaking with me proceeded to come back and wake me up, like a man that is awakened from his sleep. 2 Then he said to me: “What are you seeing?”
... 5 So the angel who was speaking with me answered and said to me: “Do you not really know what these things mean?” In turn I said: “No, my lord.”

Daniel 7:15-16 “As for me, Daniel, my spirit was distressed within on account of it, and the very visions of my head began to frighten me. 16 I went up close to one of those who were standing, that I might request from him reliable information on all this. And he said to me, as he went on to make known to me the very interpretation of the matters

Daniel 8:27 'And as for me, Daniel, I felt exhausted and was made sick for [some] days. Then I got up and did the work of the king; but I kept showing myself numbed on account of the thing seen, and there was nobody understanding [it]


This is cleared up by one simple fact: no prophet can summarily contradict what God told Moses.
Therefore, it is clear as crystal to any Jew who is paying attention that even though Jeremiah mentions a "new covenant that will not be like the old one," it isn't talking about taking a break and starting over. Otherwise, that would make God a liar when He declared that the covenant between Himself and Children of Israel was eternal.

What if what you are reading actually doesnt apply the way you think it applies. I mean, wasnt the mosiac covenant 'conditional'? If the Isrealites broke the conditions of the covenant then God had the right to end it did he not?
Exodus 19:5 And now if YOU will strictly obey my voice and will indeed keep my covenant, then YOU will certainly become my special property out of all [other] peoples, because the whole earth belongs to me. 6 And YOU yourselves will become to me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation.’ These are the words that you are to say to the sons of Israel.”
And if you read the account in Jeremiah where he speaks of Gods plan to introduce a new covenant, it was because of the nations unfaithfulness...."‘which covenant of mine they themselves broke" Surely God has the right to change the covenant due to the nations unfaithfulness?

The only way to make this business make sense is to understand that it wasn't that a new covenant was to be forged, as much as the original covenant would be renewed. It wouldn't have the load of sins that were collected since God brought the Jews out of Egypt. It would be a clean slate. Further, it would not have the whole lack of freedom of choice that came when God brought the Jews out of Egypt.

Yes i can go with that. Starting with a clean slate would require the removal of the old one. Under moses, the forgiveness of sins was inaugurated by a blood sacrifice...'the blood of the covenant'
So, if its the same covenant as that installed under Moses, how is your slate cleaned without blood?


Actually, this happened when all of the Jews repented after the incidents in the Book of Esther. All the Jews who were left gave over their hearts to God, and to following the Torah, and God accepted them.
Ok, the events up to 475 BCE certainly did bring the jews to repentance, true. Jerusalem was rebuilt and the people returned to their homeland after the captivity to babylon. The temple was rebuilt, the utensils that had been stolen by babylonians were returned to Jerusalem... i can see how this restoration was Gods blessing on Isreal absolutely.

However, why did God also not re establish the Davidic kingdom at that time? Why did God allow his city to be ruled by pagan kings? Why did he allow the temple and priesthood to be completely destroyed again in 70ce by the romans?
 

smokydot

Well-Known Member
Maybe you want to go back and see why I stated what I did. The content in question is some which you have refused to address because you stated "no he didn't, oh yes he did," type of point. This is what I was referring to:
Twisting the evidence is not a way to in anything. It is simply dishonest.

As for being laughed out of a court of law; I highly doubt it. I understand the justice system. I have a degree in criminal justice. I understand the court system.
A degree in criminal justice is not even close to a degree in law.
And understanding the "court system" is not even close to understanding law.

Nice misrepresentation of your implied courtroom-trial qualifications. . .how honest is that?
More so, I understand history, and history and court does not require the same type of evidence. So there is a huge problem with your analogy.
Finally, I'm point to scripture. You can try to run around it as much as you want, but until you actually address it, there is no reason to deny that the scripture I pointed out shows that Jesus sinned. And again, the fact that the Bible also says something else only supports another point I've made; that the Bible contradicts itself.
So instead of dodging the actual subject, and misconstruing my argument, you may just want to address it in an honest manner.
As honest as your misrepresentation of your implied courtroom-trial qualifications above?
Show me the contradiction. Attacking me will not make your position any stronger. Not understanding me; and I think that you're doing so on purpose, does not make your position any stronger.
As have I. Yet, instead of actually really addressing the subject, you just repeated yourself again.
So, instead of actually addressing anything, you just want to side track more. Honestly, I don't expect much more from the vast majority of Christians anymore. I think it's quite likely that A_E is here to actually give a better representation of Christians.
Now, that is rich!
Translate: the more a Christian agrees with my misunderstanding of NT theology, the better a representative of Christians it makes him.

Not surprising. . .that's exactly how blindness and denial work.
As for discussing the other post, I see no reason to. You won't even enter into an honest discussion here.
And more dishonesty. I don't care that it was made public. Anyone who has read what I've written will clearly see that I don't support your point of view. But I do acknowledge that a Christian such as yourself can make a good point from time to time.
Because he knows a lot of spot-on NT theology.
Relooking over that post, I'm assuming I probably just read the first sentence or so, which makes it look as if you were saying that the Jewish law is not a curse. If that is what you are saying, then yes, that is a good point. If I misunderstood you, then no, its a horrible point. Either way, it doesn't matter.
All the laws are called commandments. There are countless other Jews before and after Jesus who referred to the Laws as commandments. The Bible refers to the Laws as commandments. So really, all you're showing is that you are either purposely misunderstanding the Bible, or you're truly ignorant of what the Bible says. Neither one helps your position.
Again, Jesus is referring to all of the commandments, to all of the Laws.
That does not address the point at issue that in Mt 5:18 Jesus is specifically referring to the Decalogue.

Likewise, "law" does not always refer to the Decalogue (moral), the Levitical laws (ceremonial), or the judicial laws (civil), as in the following:
Mt 12:5 -- refers to Nu 28:9-10,
Lk 10:27 -- refers to Dt 6:5,
Jn 1:45 - refers to Dt 18:15, 18-19,
Jn 10:34 - refers to Ps 82:6,
Jn 12:34 - refers to Ps 110:1-2,4; Is 9:7; Eze 37:25; Da 7:14,
Jn 15:25 - refers to Ps 35:19, 69:4
Just read Romans. Chapter 8 is a good place to start. Even Chapter 7 begins to identify a distinction of having to follow the law, and not. I'm not going to take some verses out of context as you have. Because in this case, it is dishonest, and does not portray what Paul is saying.
 
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angellous_evangellous

Guest
It is the preferred method of atheists/agnostics. Not Christians.

Now just meditate on that in light of the lengths that Christians have gone to so they could stifle the progress of almost every human venture.

You would be most familiar with creationism, support of illegal wars, and possibly stem cell research. Those are just a few contemporary issues.
 
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angellous_evangellous

Guest
:clapWow, those edits sure make that reapeated post impressive.:clap
 

smokydot

Well-Known Member
It isn't possible for someone to fulfill the law, and then it is over and done.

There are commandments that are meant to be done daily. Completing them yesterday does not change a Jew's obligation to do them today. There are weekly commandments, there are monthly commandments, there are annual commandments, and there are once in a life-time commandments.

There are some commandments that men have that women don't have, or that Jews have that non-Jews don't have. Someone who has a higher level of obligation can acquit someone of their obligation if they have an equal or lower level of obligation.

For example: a Jewish man is supposed to recite Kiddush, a benediction that sanctifies the day, on Shabbat. A man who makes it and has other people in mind means that he can fulfill their commandment of hearing Kiddush. But that only works for this round. Kiddush has to be made for Friday night and again on Saturday at lunchtime. One Friday night recitation might clear the obligation for the others joining him for Shabbat dinner, but everyone (Jewish) is obligated to make or hear Kiddush again on Saturday. And, of course, next Shabbat comes with its own set of obligations.

The concept of one man coming to "fulfill the law" such that no one has to do it anymore is not at all Jewish.
Minor, but important, mistake. . .you're linking two doctrines of NT theology that are not linked:

1) Jesus' fulfillment of the law (Mt 5:17) is what makes him the perfect (sinless) atoning sacrifice, according to the regulations for sacrifices in Leviticus.

2) That "no one has to do the law anymore" to gain righteousness, is not because it has been fulfilled, but because the Levitical law has been set aside,
with the setting aside of the Levitical priesthood which was its basis, as revealed in Heb 7:12, 18.
 

smokydot

Well-Known Member
Now just meditate on that in light of the lengths that Christians have gone to so they could stifle the progress of almost every human venture.

You would be most familiar with creationism, support of illegal wars, and possibly stem cell research. Those are just a few contemporary issues.
And how have Christians "twisted the evidence" therein, which is the point at issue?

The solid objections presented to evolution are asserted by scientists.

"Illegal" war is simply your opinion, which is not shared by multitudes.

Objections to stem cell research, like abortion, are legitimate objections.

These have nothing to do with the point at issue. . .stay on point.
 
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angellous_evangellous

Guest
And how have Christians "twisted the evidence" therein, which is the point at issue?

The solid objections presented to evolution are asserted by scientists.

"Illegal" war is simply your opinion, which is not shared by multitudes.

Objections to stem cell research, like abortion, are legitimate objections.

These have nothing to do with the point at issue. . .stay on point.

You've demonstrated my point beautifully.
 

Harmonious

Well-Known Member
Zechariah 4:1-5 "And the angel who was speaking with me proceeded to come back and wake me up, like a man that is awakened from his sleep. 2 Then he said to me: “What are you seeing?”
... 5 So the angel who was speaking with me answered and said to me: “Do you not really know what these things mean?” In turn I said: “No, my lord.”
A moment of disorientation does NOT translate to the prophet not knowing what he said.

The angel explained things, and all was understood.

You have an interesting way of interpreting that which you read.

[quote]
Daniel 7:15-16 “As for me, Daniel, my spirit was distressed within on account of it, and the very visions of my head began to frighten me. 16 I went up close to one of those who were standing, that I might request from him reliable information on all this. And he said to me, as he went on to make known to me the very interpretation of the matters[/quote]

Again... Prophets are only human. And for the record, Daniel isn't listed by Jews as a prophet (though he very well may have been). He wasn't sure how to interpret his dream.

You know, to pick ONE verse of confusion and disorientation and generalize that "the prophet didn't know what he was talking about," is intellectually dishonest.

Daniel 8:27 'And as for me, Daniel, I felt exhausted and was made sick for [some] days. Then I got up and did the work of the king; but I kept showing myself numbed on account of the thing seen, and there was nobody understanding [it]

A proper translation actually helps.

27. And I, Daniel, became broken and ill for days, but I rose and did the king's work, and I was terrified about the vision, but no one realized it.

He was afraid of the vision. He didn't LIKE the vision, and it made him ill. There is nothing to say that no one (including him) didn't understand it.

No, your idea about the prophets not knowing what they were on about doesn't work. It was intellectually dishonest for you to say so.

What if what you are reading actually doesnt apply the way you think it applies.
Interesting hypothetical, but it DOES apply the way I think it does.

I mean, wasnt the mosiac covenant 'conditional'?
No, it wasn't. The Jews living in the land of Israel was conditional, but there was nothing 'conditional' about the eternal covenant God made with Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, and the Jews at Mount Sinai.

If the Isrealites broke the conditions of the covenant then God had the right to end it did he not?
Nope. That is a distinct misunderstanding on your part.

The covenant was not conditional. The idea that if the Jews didn't live up to what we are supposed to do that God would PUNISH us. Not that He would abrogate the covenant.

Exodus 19:5 And now if YOU will strictly obey my voice and will indeed keep my covenant, then YOU will certainly become my special property out of all [other] peoples, because the whole earth belongs to me. 6 And YOU yourselves will become to me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation.’ These are the words that you are to say to the sons of Israel.”
Precisely.

It is a definition of how God would treat the Jewish people, not for the concept of the covenant being conditional.

I know... you like the words you like, but context is important. Truly.

And if you read the account in Jeremiah where he speaks of Gods plan to introduce a new covenant, it was because of the nations unfaithfulness...."‘which covenant of mine they themselves broke" Surely God has the right to change the covenant due to the nations unfaithfulness?
Nope. Because God's eternal promises are eternal.

I know... You so badly want the Jews to be undone and the Christians to take the Jews' place that you will ignore what God said was eternal, over and over again.

You are reaching, and it is growing tiresome.

Yes i can go with that. Starting with a clean slate would require the removal of the old one.
:rolleyes:

No. Starting with a clean slate means that the covenant is there without the sins that were collected over time.

Under moses, the forgiveness of sins was inaugurated by a blood sacrifice...'the blood of the covenant'
So, if its the same covenant as that installed under Moses, how is your slate cleaned without blood?
:facepalm:

You know, we just read that in the weekly portion last Saturday. It wasn't "a blood sacrifice". It was a token commandment. It was priming the Jews to make themselves worthy to see that they were worth this special relationship with God, as God was about to take them out of Egypt and declare them HIS nation, Chosen for a special relationship with God.

Starting with a clean slate means that all of the sins, the complaining in the Desert, the Golden Calf, and things of that nature, would be as if they never happened; God would consider the Jews as if Jewish history were free of sin.

Ok, the events up to 475 BCE certainly did bring the jews to repentance, true. Jerusalem was rebuilt and the people returned to their homeland after the captivity to babylon. The temple was rebuilt, the utensils that had been stolen by babylonians were returned to Jerusalem... i can see how this restoration was Gods blessing on Isreal absolutely.
Good.

However, why did God also not re establish the Davidic kingdom at that time?
Probably because the majority of the Jews chose to stay in Babylon, rather than return to Israel. I'm sure if the Jews left to be in Israel en mass it might have been a different story. However, it didn't happen that way, and all we have is conjecture about what might have been otherwise.

Why did God allow his city to be ruled by pagan kings?
Because Jews of the then and now had allowed themselves to assimilate with the Greko-Roman non-Jewish culture. It was a function of what the Jews at the time didn't remember to focus on.

Why did he allow the temple and priesthood to be completely destroyed again in 70ce by the romans?
First of all, the priesthood never went away. They are still alive and well, and as with us as ever. They don't minister in the Temple, because there is no Temple for them to serve in. But that doesn't make them any less Cohanim.

But why was the Temple permitted to be destroyed? Because the Jews, who were indeed primarily living Torah life-styles, were treating each other with blatant disrespect. The sin of "evil speech" was rampant, as was "baseless hatred".

I would suggest that it is still a problem to this day amongst Jews, which is why the Temple isn't rebuilt today.

I don't know if you are aware, but Jerusalem is actually on a major fault line. Since it was built, the Dome of the Rock has fallen no fewer than 400 times. (I did a paper on it in college.) I acknowledge that, with all the pictures I've seen, the Dome is beautiful, and the original purpose for it (oddly enough) was to preserve the location that Jews considered holy and to prevent Christian relic seekers from ravaging the Temple Mount, chipping away stone from the floor of the destroyed Temple.

My greatest wish is that, when God determines that it is time to rebuild the Temple, that the Dome of the Rock and Masjid al-Aqsa are moved somewhere else. The buildings are beautiful, and there is no reason to destroy them, but to move them elsewhere would allow the functioning of the Temple once it is rebuilt.
 
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smokydot

Well-Known Member
:biglaugh:
Your ignorance of the facts is showing. . .again.

Fallingblood's satisfying the requirements for criminal justice, necessary to practice law enforcement (cops). . .is not even close to satisfying the requirements
for jurisprudence (the science of law), necessary to practice in court. . .which was the point at issue: that fallingblood would be laughed out of court for his argument.

And speaking of laughs, it looks like when it comes to your knowledge of degree requirements. . .the laugh is on you!
 
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Heneni

Miss Independent
This is a common Christian belief, that Jesus fulfilled Jewish law. But is that even possible? As in, can anyone fulfill Jewish law?

To me, it simply doesn't sound right.

Jesus fullfilled the righteous requirement of the law. He loved his father with every fibre of his being. That is the greatest commandment and all other laws hanged on that one. Hence he never needed to make a sacrifice. He was without sin and there was no deceit in his mouth. He never needed to go to the temple to make a sacrifice for his sins because he never sinned. Hence he fullfilled the righteous requirement of the law perfectly.
 
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angellous_evangellous

Guest
Your ignorance of the facts is showing. . .again.

Fallingblood's satisfying the requirements for criminal justice, necessary to practice law enforcement (cops). . .is not even close to satisfying the requirements
for jurisprudence (the science of law), necessary to practice in court. . .which was the point at issue: that fallingblood would be laughed out of court for his argument.

And speaking of laughs, it looks like when it comes to your knowledge of degree requirements. . .the laugh is on you!

Critical thinking would greatly serve you. Perhaps.

And I wrote the university catalog for a major university for four years. I know what degree requirements are.
 
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angellous_evangellous

Guest
Thanks!

That, along with many types, is what is found in Leviticus. . .which is the seedbed of NT theology.

:biglaugh:


[If you're being serious here, you're going to have to just tell me when you're joking because every other post of yours is hilarious]
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
Feel better? Now that you got that off your chest. Let's get back to business.
:facepalm: You brought it up.
Here is the post in question:
Did I not just post that? Yes I did, in hope you would address it.
Does it ring a bell? Jesus' sinless state was one of the points addressed earlier in the thread.
Yes, it rings a bell as I just posted it. Maybe you want to go back and read where you said that you weren't going to address it. As in, when I first pointed that section, you stated you wouldn't address it. So maybe, instead of running in a circle, you might want to address something for once.
It is the preferred method of atheists/agnostics. Not Christians.
You've shown the opposite to be true in this thread. You're even doing it with your last post.
Running around? I refuted your sinful Jesus fallacy earlier in the thread and put it to rest. Yet you continue to bring it up. Did I say something to stir your conscience?
Twisting the evidence. That is exactly what you're doing here. You haven't refuted anything. You've simply supported the idea that the NT contains contradictions. That's all.
I'm repeating myself because you keep asking me to...lol...I'll spare you this time ok..
I'm asking you to address the actual subject, which you refuse to do.
I'm not letting you off the hook that easy. Since you claim I've been sidetracking, I'll get back on track and discuss the verse in question: What is the "curse of the law"?

Galatians 3:13 Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us, for it is written: "Cursed is everyone who is hung on a tree."[/quote] There is no curse. And all you're doing is more sidetracking.

Paul was wrong. Paul was purporting his own theological ideas, and can't even support them all of the time. This is one example of him not being able to support the idea that there is a curse of the law. The law is not a curse.

Even the scripture he is citing opposes what he is saying.
The 600+ laws fell into 3 major categories. Moral, Civil, and ceremonial. Many of them overlapped. While the Jews probably thought of all of them as a package, all coming from God, they likely made certain mental distinctions.

For example, the 10 commandments, unlike the other laws, were directly spoken by God and placed in the ark of the convenant setting them apart as especially important. The civil laws, statutes, and judgments were all based on the moral law providing further clarification.

The ceremonial law also stemmed from the moral law in that it was only needed because the moral law was broken. The context will determined which law or commandment is being addressed. The context in Mat 5, is undeniably referring to the 10 commandments--The Moral Law.
No. The commandments were the law. All of the law. There is no distinction here. Jesus said all of the law.

Plus, addresses the Law and the prophets. You can't say that only means the 10 commandments because it isn't logical. Jesus himself uses the law and commands (as in, he isn't saying commandments, he's saying commands) interchangeably. There is a long history of Jewish teachers doing just this, before and after Jesus.

More so, in context of teachers of the Law, and Pharisees, who Jesus' followers are suppose to follow the law even more strictly then, there is no reason to assume that he is only stating the 10 Commandments. There is no suggestion of that at all in Matthew.

All of the law was given by God. It was spoken by God. So your basis is off anyway.

Basically, to accept what you're saying, one has to ignore what Jesus is saying, what other Jewish teachers have said both before and after Jesus regarding the Law, and then assume that there was some distinction which you can't even prove.

Again, there is no a single shred of suggestion that Jesus was only speaking of the 10 Commandments. He states all of the Law, which tells us he is talking about the entire Jewish law, not just a small portion of it.

So if you feel I'm taking Rom 7:12-13 out of context, you must obviously have the correct context. Please share your interpretation.
Context and interpretation are different. You obviously don't seem to know what context is. And yes, I have the correct context, as in context of the whole chapter. In context of all of what Paul is saying in that discussion.

On another note, If you haven't noticed, I have yet to reply to poisonshady or blacknights post on the OT messiah. I've been saving it for our one on one. You ready?
Sure.
 
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