Every time I notice that.....Where have Jews and Christians ever done this?
Ever?
I wish I remember which threads .
but I remember Christians always pick verses of Torah to prove to Jews that Jesus (pbuh) is Messiah (pbuh).
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Every time I notice that.....Where have Jews and Christians ever done this?
Ever?
We Musilms take only the verse of Bible which match with Islam belief.
Every time I notice that.
I wish I remember which threads .
but I remember Christians always pick verses of Torah to prove to Jews that Jesus (pbuh) is Messiah (pbuh).
bias to what match with my religion,I don't see any problem.And this is the dictionary definition of confirmation bias.
And Muslims think 'The Helper' in John refers to Muhammadbut I remember Christians always pick verses of Torah to prove to Jews that Jesus (pbuh) is Messiah (pbuh).
Yes , the Christians interpretation of Torah is corrupted. to most of Jews I think.But do Christians do this while simultaneously claiming the Torah is corrupt? No. That is Rival's point.
It's not logical to think that a corrupted text, combined with other corroborating sources, can be used to infer what the original version might have been?So WHY use 'corrupted' books to PROVE YOUR RELIGION?
This is not logical.
that's in English.And Muslims think 'The Helper' in John refers to Muhammad
bias to what match with my religion,I don't see any problem.
No, but the issue here is that evolution over time is normal, but that's not corruption. Also the Muslim argument is that the Torah and Gospel have been totally utterly corrupted, which is why they don't agree with Islam. But we have copies of the Gospel from before, during and after the 7th century and it is the same.Biblical scholars also agree that the Jewish scriptures and the New Testament have changed over time, too. They disagree with the Muslims about the specific changes, of course, but the fact that the Bible hasn't been handed down unchanged from some original version seems to be taken as a given by anyone who takes the issue seriously.
It is the Holy Spirit.that's in English.
Because it's proved by Greek it's means Muhammad (pbuh) in Arabic.
Exactly. Christians come out better than you according to your standard, because they don't reject anything of the previous religions and do not call it corrupted.They do believe in some verses mentionned to Jeuss (pbuh), you reject.
So you don't reject polytheism, you only think its been corrupted?it's simple.
It's like take a part of cake or reject at all
This is it. but funny
If it's about polytheism so why you reject islam and other religions (polytheism) ?
It's not logical to think that a corrupted text, combined with other corroborating sources, can be used to infer what the original version might have been?
There are many examples where historians use a corrupted version of a text along with other sources to deduce what the uncorrupted version was.But do Christians do this while simultaneously claiming the Torah is corrupt? No. That is Rival's point.
There are many examples where historians use a corrupted version of a text along with other sources to deduce what the uncorrupted version was.
We arrive conclusion that Torah and Gospel are corrupted so we just regonise what match with our beliefs and reject which oppose our beliefs.The problem exists because you arrive at that conclusion, then you seek out any evidence supporting it. That's an inherently irrational approach to take. And your position re: the previous scriptures engenders massive cognitive dissonance.
The scriptures are corrupt so they're unreliable but they prophesy Muhammad but they're unreliable so they can't be trusted but then your position falls apart but for Islam to have any legitimacy that has to be true so they must prophesy Muhammad but the scriptures are still unreliable so they can't be trusted...
It requires you to believe said scriptures are unreliable but at the same time trust they're reliable enough to reinforce your claim that Muhammad was prophesied in Jewish & Christian texts.
No, this is not a joke thread.
Muslims, I find it really offensive that you dare refer to the Jewish and Christian Scriptures as 'corrupted', but not only this, you then proceed to try to tell us that, using the same so-called 'corrupted' Scripture, that Muhammad was prophesied in said Scripture. Not only this but also that all previous prophets were Muslims.
Seriously, make up your damn minds.
You cannot use BOTH arguments.
Also, the Christian and Jewish Scriptures have remained unchanged since before the time of Muhammad; we know this, we have copies from before the 7th century.
Either you believe the Torah and the Gospel are corrupted or you don't.
Goddamn pick one.
Qur'an 2:130 said:And who would be averse to the religion of Abraham except one who makes a fool of himself. And We had chosen him in this world, and indeed he, in the Hereafter, will be among the righteous.
Qur'an 2:131 said:When his Lord said to him, "Submit", he said "I have submitted [in Islam] to the Lord of the worlds."
No, but the issue here is that evolution over time is normal, but that's not corruption.
Why is that the time frame you're looking at? In the Muslim context, I would think that they're talking about corruption between Moses (or whichever other prophet) and the time of Muhammad.Also the Muslim argument is that the Torah and Gospel have been totally utterly corrupted, which is why they don't agree with Islam. But we have copies of the Gospel from before, during and after the 7th century and it is the same.
It is the Holy Spirit.
The Gospel itself says so.