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Was Babylon and Assyria primarily Arab when they conquered Israel?

Spiderman

Veteran Member
Just wondering if at the time the Assyrians and Babylonians conquered Israel and destroyed the temple, if those nations were made primarily of descendants of Ishmael?

If so, Amazing how much Arab / Israeli relations have changed after a few thousand years and new Religion lol (sarcasm).

Babylon would have been contemporary Iraq, and they identify themselves as Arab.

But if Babylon at that time was not made up of a majority of descendants of Ishmael, it wouldn't make sense that it would be today (same with Assyria), which would mean that a large percentage of people who identify themselves as Arab aren't Arab, no?
 
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Spiderman

Veteran Member
Hagar was an Egyptian slave who took Ishmael back to Egypt where their original descendants settled , so it would make sense if the largest number of true descendents of Ishmael were (and likely still are ) in North Africa.

Which could very mean that the the Pharoahs as well as the Egyptians who the Hebrews were enslaved to were primarily of Arab descent as well.
 

Spiderman

Veteran Member
The modern identification 'Arab' is base on a linguistic/cultural grouping that evolved after the spread of Islam rather than a clear ethnicity.

So no, they weren't Arabs.
Okay, so the people who repeatedly say the battle between Israel and the Arabs is a family feud between between the descendants of Ishmael and Isaac are making an incorrect statement since the majority of Arabs are not descendants of Abraham which means they aren't semetic either , which historians and they identify and often pride themselves as being.
 
Okay, so the people who repeatedly say the battle between Israel and the Arabs is a family feud between between the descendants of Ishmael and Isaac are making an incorrect statement since the majority of Arabs are not descendants of Abraham which means they aren't semetic either , which historians and they identify and often pride themselves as being.

Metaphor, not actual history.
 

MD

qualiaphile
They were Assyrians and Babylonians. Arabs are originally from Arabia and as Augustus mentioned more of a linguistic group than ethnic.
 

Spiderman

Veteran Member
No. The Assyrian people still exist, by the way, and they're not Arabs: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Assyrian_people

Next you'll ask something equally as stupid as "were the ancient Egyptians Arabs when they enslaved the Jews?". Before you do, the descendants of the ancient Egyptians still exist, too, and they're not Arabs, either: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Copts
Your second statement is only half -true. Hagar and Ishmael settled in Egypt, so that is where the Arabs initially were, therefore, a percentage of the Egyptians at that time would have been Arab.
 

shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
I believe the Babylonians and Assyrians were predominately belonging to the Caucasian Indo-Iranian group of the Indo-European language family, and not Semitic like the Arabs and Hebrews.
 
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