It means we can discuss things, but to trample in and go on all-out debate rhetoric without even knowing a thing about the person you're debating is out of bounds. You even quoted back to me a fact I pointed out four days before you in another thread; the fact about the top 400 billionaires owning as much as wealth as the bottom 50% of Americans:Let's review. If "lame" is offensive, I'll retract it; but here's what I consider offensive propaganda to be posted without expecting to be challenged....and maybe you can show we where it says that this sub-forum and the Political World are not "particularly meant for debate." Does that mean any claim made gets to go unchallenged?
The bottom 50% of Americans in terms of wealth, own less than 4% of total American wealth. The top 400 individuals in the US in terms of wealth, own approximately as much as the bottom 50% of the US households (57 million households) combined.
As to where it says that it's not meant for debate; it says it right under the title of the subforum.
"This is for Socialist discussion and ideas only. This is not for debate."
It's similar to one of the DIR areas, except for political positions. Since both of us have socialist political leanings, if you want to discuss things civilly, then let's do that.
I think you're making all sorts of assumptions about what my stances are or are not based on the fact that I'm not interested in shifting blame or fixing symptoms rather than causes.
Actually no, I'm not saying it only has victims. There were lots of victims. But the victims and the perpetrators are two sets that overlap in multiple places. There are people that were perpetrators, there were some people that were victims that assisted in what occurred, and some people that were victims caught in the crossfire.Regardless! This is your statement which I find totally offensive, because it is a central part of the meme that wealth inequality and the worldwide banking collapse only has victims and no perpetrators:
Let's consider, for example, this recent financial collapse. What caused it? Economists could, have, and probably will continue to, write whole libraries on the answer to that question and we're not going to solve it on a random online forum. But there are some key aspects:
-In the 1980's, progressive taxation was greatly diminished. People voted for it, and bought into it, and many of them still love Reagan.
-There were free trade agreements in the 90's that were directly correlated with an increase in the trade deficit. Americans had the opportunity to call or write to their elected officials to oppose it. This wasn't good for job creation.
-There was the repeal of the Glass-Steagall act, by elected officials, that were intertwined with corporate leaders. The repeal of this allowed investment banks and commercial banks to merge. Americans had the opportunity to call or write to their elected officials to oppose it. Failing that, Americans had the more direct opportunity to withdraw all of their funds from, and stop doing business with, any bank that was involved.
-Banks offered silly mortgage terms. Things like "no down payment" or a tiny down payment, rather than the traditional down payment of 20% or more. It was greed.
-And here's the other end of the relationship: Consumers, in great numbers, agreed to the terms of those loans. They bought houses without down payments. They bought houses with tiny down payments. They refinanced their mortgages so that they could withdraw equity from their homes. Millions of people. It was greed.
-Other parts of the system endorsed it. Companies unwisely leveraged based on the assumption that these mortgages would be paid. Other companies insured against potential losses if, somehow, these mortgages were not paid. Other companies passed them off as having good credit ratings.
-Eventually it caught up, people couldn't pay mortgages, things unraveled, the leveraged financial firms collapsed, and the government bailed out the big financial companies and let the citizens suffer the consequences.
-Here's where the relationship continues: Hundreds of millions of people continue to do business with those banks. Wells Fargo has 70 million customers. Bank of America operates in all 50 states and has tens of millions of customers. Citigroup generates something like $10 billion per year in revenue from regional banking. The same is true for JP Morgan; they've got something like $2 trillion in assets, a good portion of which are from banking. Customers, by the millions, voluntarily continue to do business with them.
If a bank's too big to fail, one could argue it's too big to exist. So if it's too big to exist, people can stop doing business with them. This isn't just the fault of a few dozen or few hundred people. It involves 100+ million peopled that give capital to those dozens or hundreds of people, let it fail, and then keep giving them more capital.
"But that's why I don't see why executives should be viewed as scapegoats, and that's why I say I don't know what people expect.
Debate rhetoric rather than substantive discussion."
And that came after a presentation that sounds suspiciously similar to Mitt Romney's: "these corporations are owned by institutions, and our pension funds are invested in those institutions, therefore we are all investors now.' Except that small fish like me, who have payed into a company-run pension plan for years, have no say over how it's invested, or how much the company borrows out of that pension fund on an IOU promissory note! So some "investors" are more equal than others in our new world where everyone's an investor and everyone who owns a business is a "job creator." Another line of BS that should be shot down every time it trips out of the mouth of some apologist for capitalism.....but that's another issue to take down on another occasion!
If you want to debate, you and I can start a thread elsewhere, such as the Political Debates area, or the One-on-One Debate area. Either start one and let me know, or send me a PM saying you'd like to debate this, and where, and I'll start one. That way we don't debate in a non-debate area or ruin Sunstone's thread. Or we could not post things about memes, BS, things being shot down, things tripping out of mouths, and a multitude of exclamation points, and talk civilly about some problems and solutions instead.
Doesn't this reinforce the concept that it's an ancient cycle by pointing that the gaps in wealth and income are identical to ancient Rome or feudalistic societies?No, this isn't a natural historical cycle. The only facet of modern capitalism that is identical to Ancient Rome or with feudalistic societies in the Middle Ages are the gaps in wealth and income.
What do you believe the causes are if it's a trend that repeats itself again and again?
Pointing out that the same cycle repeats itself doesn't mean it follows the same numbers, with the same technologies, every time.Debt-based financing and fractional reserve banking systems which have made continuous growth an imperative, are not a repeat of history. And for the record neither is the wealth gap that shows the top 1% of Americans owning 40% of the Nation's wealth! Awhile back, a group of historians did an analysis of available records of Ancient Rome and determined that Rome's wealth gap (even on a slave-labour based economy) was less than the U.S. and other Western nations:To determine the size of the Roman economy and the distribution of income, historians Walter Schiedel and Steven Friesen pored over papyri ledgers, previous scholarly estimates, imperial edicts, and Biblical passages. Their target was the state of the economy when the empire was at its population zenith, around 150 C.E. Schiedel and Friesen estimate that the top 1 percent of Roman society controlled 16 percent of the wealth, less than half of what Americas top 1 percent control.
To arrive at that number, they broke down Roman society into its established and implicit classes. Deriving income for the majority of plebeians required estimating the amount of wheat they might have consumed. From there, they could backtrack to daily wages based on wheat costs (most plebs did not have much, if any, discretionary income). Next they estimated the incomes of the respectable and middling sectors by multiplying the wages of the bottom class by a coefficient derived from a review of the literature. The few respectable and middling Romans enjoyed comfortable, but not lavish, lifestyles.
Income inequality in the Roman Empire « Per Square Mile