Finnyhaha
Member
Jeremiah 7:22 "I gave your ancestors no commands regarding burnt offerings or any other kind of sacrifices when I brought them out of Egypt."
I hope that everyone will recognize the problem I have with this verse. Much of the Torah is made up of very, very specific laws concerning sacrifices, yet in Jeremiah, supposedly written after the Torah, Jeremiah claims that God said to him that there had been no commands regarding offerings. What's the deal?
I have a couple ideas:
a) God did not give the laws for the sacrfices until a while AFTER he had brought them out of Egypt.
b) Jeremiah meant this figuratively, and meant to say that God no longer desired the offerings to be made.
c) The Torah was actually written much later than claimed by Jews and Christians.
Anyone have a preference of one of these explanations? Any other possibilties? Let me know because this has been bothering me for a while.
I hope that everyone will recognize the problem I have with this verse. Much of the Torah is made up of very, very specific laws concerning sacrifices, yet in Jeremiah, supposedly written after the Torah, Jeremiah claims that God said to him that there had been no commands regarding offerings. What's the deal?
I have a couple ideas:
a) God did not give the laws for the sacrfices until a while AFTER he had brought them out of Egypt.
b) Jeremiah meant this figuratively, and meant to say that God no longer desired the offerings to be made.
c) The Torah was actually written much later than claimed by Jews and Christians.
Anyone have a preference of one of these explanations? Any other possibilties? Let me know because this has been bothering me for a while.