So there is not a problem with David being a servant in Psalm 89:21, yet the servant being Israel in Isaiah.
Isaiah 52:13-14 is literally paraphrasing David in Psalms 89:19-21 with four keywords; if we include verse 10, it makes it 5 words.
David was Yehoshua/Yeshua two thousand years ago, and David returns as the Messiah according to multiple verses (Ezekiel 34:23-24, Ezekiel 37:24-25, Jeremiah 23:5, Jeremiah 30:8-9, Jeremiah 33:15, Hosea 3:5, Isaiah 55:3, Isaiah 22:22, Isaiah 9:6-7, etc).
Then many of you who are supposed to be Jews (Praising the Lord), are trying to overwrite Messianic prophecy with the made up Rabbinic ideas.
In my understanding of scripture, our people were cut off in Zechariah 11 because the 'Worthless Leaders' corrupted the religion since Babylon, and now you're so set on their ideas, many of you have rejected what was prophesied in the Bible.
If you think it means a literal resurrection then the resulting leader would be David and no one else, including Jesus.
I find it so shocking you make statements I find completely contrary to the Jewish/Israelite contexts, to follow the Rabbi instead.
Yehoshua was a symbolic naming going back to Hosea son of Nun, being renamed Yehoshua as he would 'bring salvation/deliverance', leading the people into the promised land, and that symbolic naming implies the 'Lord Saves' (Exodus 23:20-23 - Joshua 3:10).
Yehoshua son of Yehozadek lead the people back from the Babylon Exile, and helped build the 2nd temple.
Then Yehoshua son of Joseph & Myriam is all prophetic naming, that Joseph was chucked into a pit by his brothers, and given a great inheritance to share with the strong.
So Yehoshua two thousand years ago was the flesh of David to fulfil the Suffering Servant, and High Priest to our people (Messiah ben Joseph).
Then to return in Zechariah 12:8-10 as an angel/divine being before our people (Messiah ben David).
I believe I can prove legally from the world's religious texts, that I'm that being sent by God here before Armageddon, and the destruction of the human race, then after some of us will be resurrected.
Do you think God thinks his people are marred?
No I don't think God has a people; I believe the Lord of Creation (YHVH) was given the nation of Israel, and they've got very confused about language, to the point they've rejected the religion they were given as prophesied.
Then I don't see it using the word 'Marred', as it doesn't make historical or contextual sense of what was understood about Isaiah 53.
So you are predicating your rectitude on being an archangel?
I'm not claiming my divine origin makes the case; I'm claiming the texts shows these things exegetically, and I believe it is possible for me to educate the Rabbinic Jews or allow God to obliterate them for rejecting religious prophecies.
I expect angels of any sort to be familiar with Hebrew grammar and linguistics and you are not.
I'm in a human form or a son of man, if I wasn't in this body, and existed in my angelic form, then I'd be connected to God with all knowledge - thus then would know the grammar, etc.
I believe I was told prior to reading the Bible at the fulfilment of Revelation 10, that I'm here to close the Snare that Yeshua/Immanuel set in Isaiah 8:11-22; where in Isaiah 28 is the Bed of Adultery before Judgement Day, and it specifically states the Messiah will return 'speaking another language to our people' (Isaiah 28:11-13) - yet be rejected, and then God keeps the enlightened saints.
So you should be saying "the foreign kings were wrong -- the nation of Israel isn't bringing any sort of atonement for them" because that's what the text stipulates.
I find that is missing many of the contexts that Isaiah 53 is interlinking to, and just because under educated gentiles claim something, we shouldn't reject the contexts for a dumb appraisal (Deuteronomy 32:21).
In my opinion.