In the holy Quran it is stated concerning Jesus;
"(I have come to you), to attest the Law which was before me, and to make lawful to you part of what was (before) forbidden to you..."
(The Qur'an (Yusuf Ali tr), Surah 3:50)
Would not making lawful a part of what was forbidden under the law of Moses constitute a modification to the Law?
"(I have come to you), to attest the Law which was before me, and to make lawful to you part of what was (before) forbidden to you..."
(The Qur'an (Yusuf Ali tr), Surah 3:50)
Would not making lawful a part of what was forbidden under the law of Moses constitute a modification to the Law?