BC-AD, BCE-CE, What Do They Stand For?

[Skwim]

Sorry Skwim, but I have to interject here. He didn't deny he was Lord.

Consider:

Mark 12:29
Jesus answered, “The most important command is this: ‘People of Israel, listen! The Lord our God is the only Lord.​

Please note:

"Our," not ",me,"
"is the only Lord" Note the "only."​

So, how many lords are there? One.
and who is that one lord? Our god. Like "Our President," or "Our teacher," the "our" sets the speaker apart from the subject "our." The two cannot be the same thing.

So although it's not recorded that Jesus said "I am not Lord," in considering Mark 12:29 common sense tells us that Jesus is saying he does not consider himself to be Lord.

.​

 

[IndigoChild5559]

That's curious. Where does he say this?

In Genesis 1 it repeats multiple times, "and there was evening and there was morning, the Xth day." Thus in that way of thinking, sunset begins the next day. It has been reckoned so throughout the history of the Jewish people.

 

[IndigoChild5559]

.

Last month, early March, a woman and an old fart in the theater where I volunteer were discussing the time abbreviations BCE, Before Common Era, and CE, Common Era, and where one left off and the other began. They both agreed the terms were tied to the Christian BC and AD.

The guy said that the Christian "BC" stood for "Before (the) Crucifixion" and "AD" stood for "After (Jesus's) Death," And this meaning for AD came into being because it was the most significant event on Earth ever. And that the birth of Jesus, which the woman was arguing for as the turning point, paled in comparison. So, as he claimed, it was at the crucifixion, when Jesus was about 35 years old, that BC ended and AD began, and likewise what BCE and CE referred to.

The woman argued that "BC" stood for "Before Christ," which lasted up until his birth and then changed to AD. He disagreed because the anointing of Jesus, making him Christ, meaning "the anointed one," didn't take place until Jesus was an adult. So it hardly stands to reason that the "C" in "BC" stood for "Christ." If anything, "BC" couldn't apply until Jesus's first anointment, which, he said, was when Jesus was about 31.

He also went on to say that while "AD" could stand for anno domini, "in the year of the lord,” Jesus didn't become anyone's lord until he died on the cross. If anything, while Jesus was alive he was a teacher, preacher, and religious leader, but not lord. Although some people did call Jesus "lord," Jesus recognized that the true lord is the god of Abraham, not himself.

Matthew 4:7
Jesus answered, “The Scriptures also say, ‘You must not test the Lord your God.’”

Matthew 4:10
Jesus said to him, “Get away from me, Satan! The Scriptures say, ‘You must worship the Lord your God. Serve only him!’”

Mark 12:29
Jesus answered, “The most important command is this: ‘People of Israel, listen! The Lord our God is the only Lord.​

Some of this comes from a one-sheet tract the old guy gave me to look at, which, I'm sure, is what sparked his discussion with the woman.



So, what do you think? Think he has a reasonable case?

.

The interlocutors have it mostly correct. BC does stand for "Before Christ. And AD does stand for anno domini, or "Year of our Lord." However, the cut off between the two is supposed to have been the birth of Jesus, not his death. And even then, it is not quite accurate.

Seeing as how the world is not entirely made up of Christians, and Jesus is NOT my Lord, nor is he the Lord of most people, it seems rather insulting to use BC and AD. Thus we have BCE (Before the Common Era), and CE (Common Era).

 

[TrueBeliever37]

Consider:

Mark 12:29
Jesus answered, “The most important command is this: ‘People of Israel, listen! The Lord our God is the only Lord.​

Please note:

"Our," not ",me,"
"is the only Lord" Note the "only."​

So, how many lords are there? One.
and who is that one lord? Our god. Like "Our President," or "Our teacher," the "our" sets the speaker apart from the subject "our." The two cannot be the same thing.

So although it's not recorded that Jesus said "I am not Lord," in considering Mark 12:29 common sense tells us that Jesus is saying he does not consider himself to be Lord.

.​

Have to disagree with your common sense statement.

Paul had asked a direct question in Acts 9:5 - Who art thou Lord? - read the verse for the answer.

Philippians 2:11 Every tongue will confess he is Lord. Although, if they hadn't tampered with the name, it would say they will be confessing he is YHWH.

God made that body to dwell in and sacrifice for man's sins. He called the body his Son, but it wasn't another person. The Spirit of God couldn't die, but the body he made himself to dwell in could. The Father is the Spirit, and the Son is the flesh. But it is not two separate individuals. The distinction is between the flesh and the Spirit.

 

[Skwim]

Have to disagree with your common sense statement.

Paul had asked a direct question in Acts 9:5 - Who art thou Lord? - read the verse for the answer.

Philippians 2:11 Every tongue will confess he is Lord. Although, if they hadn't tampered with the name, it would say they will be confessing he is YHWH.

Just an example of what I pointed out in the OP:

"Although some people did call Jesus "lord," Jesus recognized that the true lord is the god of Abraham, not himself."​

So, the deciding consideration isn't what others said about him, but what Jesus said about himself, which was::

Mark 12:29
"Jesus answered, “The most important command is this: ‘People of Israel, listen! The Lord our God is the only Lord.
​

And to back this up we have Jesus separating himself from god, speaking of god and himself as two different entities.

Matthew 4:7
Jesus answered, “The Scriptures also say, ‘You must not test the Lord your God.’”
​

(note that he doesn't say "‘You must not test the Lord, me)

Matthew 4:10
Jesus said to him, “Get away from me, Satan! The Scriptures say, ‘You must worship the Lord your God. Serve only him!’”
​

(note that he doesn't say "You must worship the Lord, me. Serve only me!’)

​

It doesn't get any more emphatic or clearer than that.

.

 

[TrueBeliever37]

Just an example of what I pointed out in the OP:

"Although some people did call Jesus "lord," Jesus recognized that the true lord is the god of Abraham, not himself."​

So, the deciding consideration isn't what others said about him, but what Jesus said about himself, which was::

Mark 12:29
"Jesus answered, “The most important command is this: ‘People of Israel, listen! The Lord our God is the only Lord.
​

And to back this up we have Jesus separating himself from god, speaking of god and himself as two different entities.

Matthew 4:7
Jesus answered, “The Scriptures also say, ‘You must not test the Lord your God.’”
​

(note that he doesn't say "‘You must not test the Lord, me)

Matthew 4:10
Jesus said to him, “Get away from me, Satan! The Scriptures say, ‘You must worship the Lord your God. Serve only him!’”
​

(note that he doesn't say "You must worship the Lord, me. Serve only me!’)

​

It doesn't get any more emphatic or clearer than that.

.

He intended to shed his blood for man's sins. He couldn't let everyone know who he was before he got the job done, or they wouldn't have crucified him. 1 Corinthians 2:8 (note that even here it calls him the Lord of glory)

Did you even take the time to look at Acts 9:5? (direct question with a direct answer)

Here is another verse where he says he is Lord. John 13:13

There is a relationship regarding the Father and the Son that he has to reveal to you. Matthew 11:27
He said if you have seen me you have seen the Father. John 14:9