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Not first hand, he was before my time ...”Forgive them, for they know not what they do."
Remember Cain.
What about remember Galatians 5:15.
Was that your point?
Strong says the Greek is Iēsous which is from the Hebrew
יְהוֹשׁוּעַYᵉhôwshûwaʻ,
or
יְהוֹשֻׁעַ Yᵉhôwshuʻa;
That reaches the limit of my ability to contribute to this particular conversation.
Good luck.
Shalom atpollard and outhouse, many have looked into the spelling and pronunciation of Yeshua's name, and I would not be critical of the various Hebrew representations. I certainly would consider Yahushua an acceptable variation. A pretty exhaustive study of how to look at the various pronunciations can be found here, even though I am not in complete agreement with everything that is believed by this individual, he has done a remarkable job of putting his understanding of this to paper. Blessings in The Name, ImAHebrew.
Shalom outhouse, thank you for taking the time to examine the link, and your response to it. I must say, your response dictates that I ask you several questions:I'm sorry
Your link is not credible and that is also not the name he would have ever heard.
Here is a clue
He was Aramaic, and Hebrew was not a language used. Even the temple in Jerusalem used Aramaic and Koine Greek
Shalom outhouse, thank you for taking the time to examine the link, and your response to it. I must say, your response dictates that I ask you several questions:
1. When Yeshua read from the Torah and Prophets (as His custom was-Luke 4:16), would He had been reading and speaking Aramaic, or Hebrew?
2. When Yeshua said, "one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the Law," was He speaking about Aramaic "jots and tittles," or Hebrew "jots and tittles?" (Matthew 5:18)
3. When Yeshua spoke in Hebrew to Paul (Acts of the Apostles 26:14), why would Paul tell King Agrippa that Yeshua spoke in Hebrew, when He, as you claim, was Aramaic, and Hebrew was not a language used?
4. When Pilate had the writing, "Yeshua of Nazareth King of the Jews," placed on the Cross, why did Pilate not use Aramaic? (John 19:20)
5. Is Jozef Milik in error when he states..."Mishnic [Hebrew] ... was at that time the spoken dialect of the inhabitants of Judaea?" (Ten Years of Discovery in the Wilderness of Judaea)
Outhouse, I believe your "clue" may be in error, which would then validate the link. Blessings in the Name, ImAHebrew.
He had been reading and speaking Aramaic, or Hebrew?
Shalom outhouse, why did Jozef Milik, who published more texts from the Dead Sea Scrolls than any other original team member, write "Mishnic [Hebrew] ... was at that time the spoken dialect of the inhabitants of Judaea?" And why didn't Pilate include Aramaic as another language to the other three (Hebrew, Latin, & Greek) for the Title of Yeshua? Does your historical evidence overwhelm logic? Blessings in The Name, ImAHebrewNothing you wrote is historical. It is apologetic, based on your literal reading of text written in koine Greek by people far removed from jesus life who never heard a word he said, and did not see anything.
His native language he was raised in was Aramaic not Hebrew. Hebrew was almost non existent in this time period
And why didn't Pilate include Aramaic as another language to the other three (Hebrew, Latin, & Greek) for the Title of Yeshua?
Does your historical evidence overwhelm logic?
Shalom outhouse, why did Jozef Milik, who published more texts from the Dead Sea Scrolls than any other original team member, write "Mishnic [Hebrew] ... was at that time the spoken dialect of the inhabitants of Judaea
Does Christianity have any real idea of how the ELOHIM go about fighting a War should THEY decide to do so?
Obviously, this scripture indicates that when the ELOHIM fight, THEIR fight is to the death. THEY hold nothing back. When THEY fight, it is total warfare. The ELOHIM seek rightly for the total destruction of THEIR enemies.
If we fully understood how the ELOHIM go about fighting in a spiritual sense, would this not help us to understand how we should fight our enemies in a physical sense? What do you think? Should Christianity love Islam to death, or should Christianity fight Islam in a physical sense to a no holds bar fight to the death according to the Scriptures?
Shalom outhouse, so Jozef Milik is clueless? Someone who studied and translated more DDS than anyone else of the original team, his statement is in error? Blessings in The Name, ImAHebrew.First of all the DDS can date as far back as 300 before jesus existed. That is almost 400 years prior to the NT text.
Under the category of post-Achaemenid is Hasmonaean Aramaic, the official language of Hasmonaean Judaea (142–37 BC). It influenced the Biblical Aramaic of the Qumran texts, and was the main language of non-biblical theological texts of that community.
Jozef Milik is clueless?
his statement is in error?
Hi Everyone,
Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
Shabbat Shalom!
Does Christianity have any real idea of how the ELOHIM go about fighting a War should THEY decide to do so? Most Christians have no understanding that the Cross was an act of war. Consider this scripture:
Hebrews 2:14
14 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;
Obviously, this scripture indicates that when the ELOHIM fight, THEIR fight is to the death. THEY hold nothing back. When THEY fight, it is total warfare. The ELOHIM seek rightly for the total destruction of THEIR enemies.
If we fully understood how the ELOHIM go about fighting in a spiritual sense, would this not help us to understand how we should fight our enemies in a physical sense? What do you think? Should Christianity love Islam to death, or should Christianity fight Islam in a physical sense to a no holds bar fight to the death according to the Scriptures?
Thanking any in advance that should be moved to reply, I am,
Sincerely, Latuwr
Shalom outhouse, there is no disagreement that Yeshua could have had Aramaic as one of the main languages He spoke, as John 3:34 states He was given the Spirit without measure. If you recall the account of the Disciples at Pentecost, there were many different languages being spoken by the Jews who were there to celebrate that Feast, and the Spirit descended upon them to where they could converse in those different languages (Acts of the Apostles 2:4-5, Acts of the Apostles 2:6-7, Acts of the Apostles 2:8-11). So yes, no doubt, Yeshua had a very keen ability to converse in Aramaic, but that is NOT our debate or disagreement.https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Language_of_Jesus
It is generally agreed that Jesus and his disciples primarily spoke Aramaic, the common language of Judea in the first century AD, most likely a Galilean dialect distinguishable from that of Jerusalem
The towns of Nazareth and Capernaum in Galilee, where Jesus spent most of his time, were Aramaic-speaking communities