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11 errors by Jesus and friends.

Berachiah Ben Yisrael

Active Member
Disrespectful phrases such as "claimed to be" or that Jesus had a "tendency to be wrong about scripture" are disappointing. I have never heard of anyone claim that Jesus and Saul were not both 100% Jewish, that the first disciples of Jesus were not all Jewish, or that Saul (Paul) was not a Pharisee of the tribe of Benjamin and sat at the feet of Gamaliel. Rather than beginning with slurs can we start from a position of honest acceptance of reality and then proceed. Jesus and the very first Christians were as Jewish as anyone who may contribute to this discussion.

In order to encourage a little humility, I believe it is true that but for Jesus and his "pals" the Jews would not have a homeland today called Israel.

:biglaugh: Welcome to the religious forums. :biglaugh:
 

Delamere

Member
What I would like to know is, where in the Hebrew scriptures does it say that Adam or Abraham or Ishmael went to Mecca to build the Ka'aba and where does it say that King David went to Mecca on hajj? Do the Hebrew scriptures say that anyone ever went to a place called Mecca?
 

Jayhawker Soule

-- untitled --
Premium Member
Disrespectful phrases such as "claimed to be" or that Jesus had a "tendency to be wrong about scripture" are disappointing.
The refusal to engage in willful gullibility is not disrespect.

Rather than beginning with slurs can we start from a position of honest acceptance of reality and then proceed.
Blind acceptance of your articles of faith has nothing in common with an "honest acceptance of reality" and to equate differences with your religious lore as "slurs" is egocentric nonsense.

In order to encourage a little humility, I believe it is true that but for Jesus and his "pals" the Jews would not have a homeland today called Israel.
Nor would they have likely suffered an endless series of humiliation, pogrom, and genocide. Yours impresses me is a rather selective and self-serving humility ...
 

Poisonshady313

Well-Known Member
I rather study what I read and try to put it into the correct context and make it work as it was intended. The text first states that Terah reached the age of 70 and with the following coma it goes on secondly to state that he begat the 3 boys. I like to say that it was only after he reached the age of 70 did he start fathering sons. Look at it this way…………..

Well now... after seeing what you like to say... let's look at what is actually said:

When Terah had lived 70 years, he begot Abram, Nahor, and Haran.

Notice the word "had". By the time he had gotten this far, this is what he accomplished... he had begotten three sons.

In other words, he begot Abram, Nahor, and Haran by the time he lived 70 years.

Oh and for the record, I thought tennis_hero’s disbelief which produced his reply was very impressive even if he was wrong, though he wasn’t, just for showing that he questions things before he believes them to be true.

I'm happy you were impressed.

As for me... I saw him simply making stuff up, hoping beyond hope that something completely unfounded MIGHT be true. I'm the opposite of impressed by this. I find this rather foolish.
 

Berachiah Ben Yisrael

Active Member
When Terah had lived 70 years, he begot Abram, Nahor, and Haran.

Notice the word "had". By the time he had gotten this far, this is what he accomplished... he had begotten three sons.

In other words, he begot Abram, Nahor, and Haran by the time he lived 70 years.

No, "had" is that he "had" already lived 70 years before he "had" started fathering sons.
 

Elessar

Well-Known Member
First, I'm going to say I'm going to cease defending the writings of Rav Sha'ul/"St. Paul", because, to be perfectly honest, I don't see him as inerrant whatsoever, and I frequently ignore his rulings; in many cases, I'm actually more likely to follow rulings from the Rambam than from Rav Sha'ul on the same subject. Of course, I still think Rav Sha'ul is someone to be studied, and who is clearly important (as his rulings on Torah and Jewish thought, however flawed they may be, make for the tenants of Christianity), however he is not the greatest. He is important, he said many great things, and he made mistakes. This, I will not deny.

Actually, this entire thread is meaningless, to me, as I do not believe generally that the Messianic Writings to be divinely inspired as Christians do, and, thus, do not believe them inerrant (argument can be made over the Revelation, but as it is a book of prophecy, it cannot be directly disproven or proven).

What I believe, as a Messianic Jew (though I cannot pretend to speak for all Messianic Jews), is that Yeshua was the Messiah, and all his teachings were correct. However, the records of his teachings, as passed down in the traditions from Mattityahu, Markos, Lukah and Yochanan, are not perfect nor divinely inspired.

The point is, I'm not going to defend Paul anymore.

You'd think he'd have checked up on such a thing. The fact that Jews today remember the difference every year when Tisha B'av rolls around means that this wasn't a mystery.

A few conclusions can be drawn: He wasn't concerned with the truth/figured his audience wouldn't know the difference (a problem of credibility for the author of one of the books Christians consider holy)... This author apparently wasn't divinely inspired (contrary to a claim commonly made by Christians).

It's strange that centuries of scribes making copies of this book wouldn't have corrected the error, considering how frequently we're told how Jewish the first Christians were. Were they all really that ignorant? Or did they just not care?

Scribal error, yes. But probably not by a Jew, but a Christian, probably after the original Hebrew text of Mattityahu was destroyed (well, some copies remained extant to the Crusades in the Holy Land, and were destroyed for preservation of the "True Faith"'s decree that the original text was the Greek) and they were continuing the tradition in Greek. This person was probably dedicated to studying the accounts of Messiah, something early Christian students were wont to do, and ignore the Tanakh. Thus, he made the error. Then, a few centuries later, his text was the one found and was copied down, and his error became permanently a part of the "divinely inspired" account of Mattityahu, at which point the error could not be corrected for the same reason that they burned the Hebrew original texts of the account - to preserve the doctrines which said that their Bible was inerrant.

When you've got the book right in front of you, there's no excuse. The statement "when Abiathar was high priest" is a direct contradiction of what's written in Samuel. Maybe it was a scribal error... maybe it was Jesus' error.

If I told you that President Lincoln died of natural causes, when it's well documented that he was shot in the head by John Wilkes Booth, how credible would I be in your eyes? Why would you believe anything I said? What would it say about my intelligence, especially if I was writing a biography about Lincoln and had the records concerning him in front of me?

We're not talking about two people of the same name anymore. This Louis XIV and Louis XVI business might have been more meaningful when discussing Zechariah.

It most certainly is an error.

Probably, yes, it is an error. Not made by Yeshua, but probably by a scribe, probably in the same way as I described above.

To the goyim, it would be completely irrelevant why Joseph went to Bethlehem... if they were going to be told that the Messiah had to be born in Bethlehem, all that mattered is that he went to Bethlehem.

The fact is, it wasn't just a silly cultural quirk that called Jersualem the city of David. The Bible had already called Jerusalem the city of David. If the goyim were expected to blindly accept certain assertions made by the Tanach despite them having no meaning for them, they might as well have been accurate.

It was not irrelevant, in Lukah, a historian's, eyes. Lukah has been shown to be accurate in almost all historical details, even when many historians have contradicted for centuries, then archeological evidence shows Lukah's writings to be accurate, and other historians inaccurate. He, apparently, for his account, went to all sources he found to be reliable and accurate, primarily, the preexistent writings of Markos in Aramaic, and gathered it together. Lukah, also, was trying to establish a specific date to draw for Yeshua's birth, since, of course, Jews didn't celebrate birthdays nor keep especial track of what day people were born. To tie it to the census is a way to relatively date the birth of Yeshua, by identifying the Roman governor, the Emperor, etc. In other words, an approximation of the birthdate for gentiles rather than Jews.

Of course, you are also falling into a slight fallacy - you are comparing the gentile Christians of the early centuries to the modern Christians of today, or even the Christians of a millennium ago. Christians at the time Lukah was writing did not follow the Tanakh blindly as modern Christians tend to.

No, it wasn't a reasonable assumption that he left when Terach died. The first mention of God speaking to Avraham was telling him to leave his country, his relatives, and his father's house. That last bit... his father's house, would seem terribly redundant if his father was dead.

I'd take your bet and I'd double it. Children are taught that Abraham left his father's house, which is to say, he wasn't dead yet.

I find it hard to believe that Stephen knew specifics about verse 31, but was ignorant of verse 32. Since there was no such thing as verses in those days, that means he carefully read one sentence, skipped a few lines, and carefully read some more.

It would seem so, yes.

You mean Orthodox children are taught that Avraham left his father's house. The average American Jew is Conservative or Reform. For many Jews, the Bar or Bat Mitzvah is the last time they read from the Torah or even read, much less study, the Tanakh or Talmud. I have heard one Conservative cousin describe his Bar Mitzvah as "Freedom from Hebrew School". Many, if not most, don't learn, or don't care to learn, scripture at all.

And, of course, as I said, he is on trial. He is speaking, trying to defend his beliefs, while trying to convince others of the truth thereof, while he is facing death. You try to speak without error when you're facing an angry crowd holding large stones.

Maybe. Jews are generally good with numbers... 10 commandments, 40 days and nights, 12 tribes of Israel... Who would have come up with 75 when the number is 70? That's like saying "A man speaking under prosecution mentioned the 15 tribes of Israel."

See my last paragraph. Of course, this could also be a scribal error, like the one I described above. 70 and 75 are much more similar in Greek than they are in Aramaic or Hebrew, and since the Acts was originally written in Greek... Either way, yes, it is an error.
 

Elessar

Well-Known Member
I think I was ten years old when I learned that Abraham bought the cave in Hebron. This isn't scholarly stuff... this is basic stuff.

I'd like to know why the author didn't take a moment in the narrative to explain that Stephen was nervous and somewhat mistaken, especially if this was written for goyim, not Jews who are expected to know better.

The author is a historian, trying to keep an accurate account of what occurred, and not offering commentary on what happened. Lukah, himself, was not a witness to the event, I don't think, only that he was writing down what he had deduced occurred from a variety of different accounts. His preservation of Stephen's factual errors actually increases his validity as a historian - after all, if he had changed them to reflect the Tanakh accurately, he would be lying about what Stephen said, modifying what had really happened to strengthen his point.

You've fallen into the same position of "would have/could have" as our friend tennis_hero. The Torah, in general, is very specific about where blood was sprinkled. I'm less willing to believe that something like that would have been left out.

My intention is to provide a reason for a discrepency. Of course, since evidence shows that Messianic Jews/"Hebrews" was originally written in Aramaic, and the only remaining extant texts are in Greek, it could be a translation error.

Nowhere between 47:31 and Jacob's death does it say that he bowed over the head of his staff.

You are correct. It is probably, considering this is, as I said before, an Aramaic text which we only have Greek translations of, a translation error.

That's your opinion.

Well, you have proven, at least in my mind, that the Messianic Writings are not inerrant. Which, of course, means nothing to me, since I never believed the Messianic Writings to be inerrant.
 

Berachiah Ben Yisrael

Active Member
First, I'm going to say I'm going to cease defending the writings of Rav Sha'ul/"St. Paul", because, to be perfectly honest, I don't see him as inerrant whatsoever, and I frequently ignore his rulings; in many cases, I'm actually more likely to follow rulings from the Rambam than from Rav Sha'ul on the same subject. Of course, I still think Rav Sha'ul is someone to be studied, and who is clearly important (as his rulings on Torah and Jewish thought, however flawed they may be, make for the tenants of Christianity), however he is not the greatest. He is important, he said many great things, and he made mistakes. This, I will not deny.

Actually, this entire thread is meaningless, to me, as I do not believe generally that the Messianic Writings to be divinely inspired as Christians do, and, thus, do not believe them inerrant (argument can be made over the Revelation, but as it is a book of prophecy, it cannot be directly disproven or proven).

What I believe, as a Messianic Jew (though I cannot pretend to speak for all Messianic Jews), is that Yeshua was the Messiah, and all his teachings were correct. However, the records of his teachings, as passed down in the traditions from Mattityahu, Markos, Lukah and Yochanan, are not perfect nor divinely inspired.

The point is, I'm not going to defend Paul anymore.

And in this I totally agree. :clap

With exception that I believe that Sha'ul wasn't quite as bad as some believe. His writtings are very hard for some as it is written of..........

2Pe 3:15 Regard the patience of our Master as salvation; even as our beloved brother Sha'ul also, according to the wisdom given to him, wrote to you;
2Pe 3:16 as also in all of his letters, speaking in them of these things. In those, there are some things that are hard understand, which the ignorant and unsettled twist, as they also do to the other Scriptures, to their own destruction.
2Pe 3:17 You therefore, beloved, knowing these things beforehand, beware, lest being carried away with the error of the wicked, you fall from your own steadfastness.
2Pe 3:18 But grow in the grace and knowledge of our Master and Savior Yahshua the Anointed. To him be the glory both now and forever. Amein.

The western train of thought will never be able to fully understand, not only what Sha'ul was trying to get across but, that of the entire scripture until they can some how erase that thought process and obtain a more eastern veiw as it pertains to that culture and time in whence these writings, and epistles, are derived.
 

starlite

Texasgirl
When Terah had lived 70 years, he begot Abram, Nahor, and Haran.

Notice the word "had". By the time he had gotten this far, this is what he accomplished... he had begotten three sons.

In other words, he begot Abram, Nahor, and Haran by the time he lived 70 years.

Terah, through his sons Abraham, Nahor, and Haran, became a forefather of numerous tribes. Terah began having children at 70. While Abraham is listed first, this appears to be because he is the most famous of Terah’s sons rather than the firstborn. When Terah died at 205, Abraham was only 75, so Terah must have been 130 when Abraham was born. (Ge 11:26, 32; 12:4) Sarah was Abraham’s half sister, likely a daughter of Terah by a different wife. (Ge 20:12) Terah’s firstborn was most likely Haran, whose daughter was old enough to marry Terah’s other son Nahor.—Ge 11:29.
 

Berachiah Ben Yisrael

Active Member
No, "had" is that he "had" already lived 70 years before he "had" started fathering sons.

And after further study I cannot find the word "had" used in the verse either in the JPS,KJV nor the Hebrew.

ויחי־תרח שׁבעים שׁנה ויולד את־אברם את־נחור ואת־הרן׃ Gen 11:26​

(KJV) Gen 11:26 And Terah lived seventy years, and begat Abram, Nahor, and Haran.

(JPS) Gen 11:26 And Terah lived seventy years, and begot Abram, Nahor, and Haran.

The only translation that I was able to find that stated as you said it with the word "had" was the "English Standard Version" which I find kinda funny that you would quote from that. :D

Out of many comparisons from other sources, and translations, the overwhelming majority side with the wisdom that he was 70 before he started fathering sons.

Him being 70 already works with which is said in Acts 7:4.

How can one say it otherwise? There is no proof whatsoever that he fathered sons prior to him becoming 70. The statement in Acts shows clearly that he was and it works.
 

Jayhawker Soule

-- untitled --
Premium Member
And after further study I cannot find the word "had" used in the verse either in the JPS,KJV nor the Hebrew.
From Genesis: The Traditional Hebrew Text with the New JPS Translation
When Terah had lived 70 years, he begot Abram, Nahor, and Haran.​
From The Stone Edition Tanach
When Terah had lived seventy years, he begot Abram, Nahor, and Haran.​
From The Torah: A Modern Commentary by W. Gunther Plaut
When Terah had lived 70 years, he begot Abram, Nahor, and Haran.​
From Judaica Press Complete Tanach
And Terah lived seventy years, and he begot Abram, Nahor, and Haran.​
From The Five Books of Moses by Everett Fox
When Tehah had lived seventy years, he bogot Avram, Nahor, and Haran.​
From The Five Books of Moses by Robert Alter
And Terah lived seventy years and he begat Abram, Nahor, and Haran.​
From Commentary on the Torah by Richard Elliott Friedman
And Teran lived seventy years, and he fathered Abram, Nahor, and Haran.​
From The New English Translation of the Septuagint
And Thara lived seventy years and became the father of Abram and Nachor and Harran.​
The word "had" is also not found in the English translations of the Targum Onkelos and Targum Pseudo-Jonathan.
 

Berachiah Ben Yisrael

Active Member
From Genesis: The Traditional Hebrew Text with the New JPS Translation
When Terah had lived 70 years, he begot Abram, Nahor, and Haran.
From The Stone Edition Tanach
When Terah had lived seventy years, he begot Abram, Nahor, and Haran.
From The Torah: A Modern Commentary by W. Gunther Plaut
When Terah had lived 70 years, he begot Abram, Nahor, and Haran.
From The Five Books of Moses by Everett Fox
When Tehah had lived seventy years, he bogot Avram, Nahor, and Haran.
The word "had" is also not found in the English translations of the Targum Onkelos and Targum Pseudo-Jonathan.

Funny how that the ones that have the word "had" are of a more modern translation. In any event I scaresly see where most of any intellect use the word "had" here as meaning he begat the three sons prior to being 70 but rather see it more as he had already lived 70 years before fathering the 3 sons.
 

Poisonshady313

Well-Known Member
The only translation that I was able to find that stated as you said it with the word "had" was the "English Standard Version" which I find kinda funny that you would quote from that. :D
I didn't. I quoted from the Artscroll Stone Edition Tanach.

How can one say it otherwise? There is no proof whatsoever that he fathered sons prior to him becoming 70. The statement in Acts shows clearly that he was and it works.

Circular logic. Using your conclusion to support your conclusion. You cannot assert that Acts is correct in order to prove that Acts is correct.

Any Jewish source will show that Abraham was born when Terah was 70... and you can't call them biased because they weren't written that way for the sake of disputing this verse in acts.
 

Poisonshady313

Well-Known Member
Terah, through his sons Abraham, Nahor, and Haran, became a forefather of numerous tribes. Terah began having children at 70. While Abraham is listed first, this appears to be because he is the most famous of Terah’s sons rather than the firstborn. When Terah died at 205, Abraham was only 75, so Terah must have been 130 when Abraham was born. (Ge 11:26, 32; 12:4) Sarah was Abraham’s half sister, likely a daughter of Terah by a different wife. (Ge 20:12) Terah’s firstborn was most likely Haran, whose daughter was old enough to marry Terah’s other son Nahor.—Ge 11:29.

Sarah was Nahor's daughter. Abraham's niece.
 

starlite

Texasgirl
Sarah was Nahor's daughter. Abraham's niece.

It appears, however, that she was a daughter of Terah by a different mother from the mother of Abram. The language of 20:12 would indeed admit of her being Abram's niece, but the fact that there was but 10 years' difference between his age and hers (Genesis 17:17) renders this hypothesis less probable. Marriage with half-sisters seems to have been not uncommon in antiquity (even in the Old Testament compare 2 Samuel 13:13).

Sarah, Sarai - International Standard Bible Encyclopedia
 

starlite

Texasgirl
Funny how that the ones that have the word "had" are of a more modern translation. In any event I scaresly see where most of any intellect use the word "had" here as meaning he begat the three sons prior to being 70 but rather see it more as he had already lived 70 years before fathering the 3 sons.

checking the context and the chronology of the verse does harmonize with "after" he was 70 years of age
 

Poisonshady313

Well-Known Member
checking the context and the chronology of the verse does harmonize with "after" he was 70 years of age

I'll check with some people who I know both speak Ancient and Modern Hebrew, and who are not religious, to the point where their answer will indeed be unbiased. I'll get back to you with the answer.
 
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