Sorry but no cigar for Tri{3}nitarians in this verse here!
"...Jesus answered ... me ... and ( my ) Father .... ( we ) ... our ..."
This is an example of what I was talking about in a previous post.
This is talking about the Father ( Jehovah ) and his Son ( Jesus ).
This can only be twisted...
So "God" is reduced to just a divine "...NATURE..."
"God" is no longer "God" but a "NATURE" spread among three individuals.
Where does it specifically say "God is ( three ) person(s)" or even "three person(s)" in the Bible?
Where does it even mention "three in one" or "three" in conection...
Specifically the concept of God as three persons (hypostases).
Quote:
Originally Posted by Marcellus of Ancyra
"Valentinus, the leader of a sect,
was the - (...
I would like to make the point - that this quotation is in a ( secondary ) source.
There is some [ . . . ] dot dot doting going on here aswell.
In other words the pre-ceeding and following - ( context ) - is missing.
I have seen this exact same quote used - saying it was talking about and...
According to the ( official ) "Orthodox" not ( private-interpretations ) of Tri{3}nitarians they are not allowed to say "...the Son is the Father..." or that they are the same "...person..." because this is what they call Modalism or Sabelianism.
Which is considered heresy.
But they can say...
Do you have anything else to say of actual substance - apart from calling me "...ignoran[t]..." and "...ridiculous..."?:redx:
If your not Tri{3}nitarian why are even bothering with this thread and attempting to defend it?:shrug:
Are you pulling my leg?
Which Bible do you think the "Christians" used?
And I suggest you go back to page one and read the forum again for "...early Christian literature..."!
HEBREWS 1:9: Gk., ( ὁ Θεός σου ) “...Therefore God, even thy God.” The word “even” inserted here by the translators, weakens the force of the expression...” - (Albert Barnes Notes on the Bible.)
HEBREWS 1:9...
Jesus didn't "..create..." them.
Jehovah = GOD in verse 1, "...created..." them ( through ) him:
HEBREWS 1:2: “...ἐπ᾿ ἐσχάτου τῶν ἡμερῶν...
HEBREWS 1:4: Gk., ( γενόμενος ) ...Having become (genomenos). Second aorist middle participle of ginomai... - (Robertsons Word Picutres In the NT.)
Not ...made... = one of many biased and tailor designed Tri{3}nitarian translations...
Plenty of different Bibles out there:
MALACHI 3:1(B): “...καὶ ἐξαίφνης ἥξει εἰς τὸν ναὸν ἑαυτοῦ...
Correction!
More accurately:
"...one Lord Jesus Christ [Gk., ( δι’ οὗ )] THROUGH OF WHOM..."
Not Gk., ( ὑπὸ ) "...BY..."
Denoting ( DIRECT AGENCY ).
But Gk., ( δι’ ) a preposition literally meaning "...THROUGH..."
Denoting (...
Your reasoning is an over-simplification falacy.
JEHOVAH is the name of the Father who is the "...one God..." of the Christians.
Jesus is one of the "...many..." that are "...called..." (1st Cor 8:4-6) "...gods..." or "...( a ) god..." or even "...the god..." (2nd Cor 4:4) in the Bible.
But...
You are much confused my friend, "...Jehovah..." is the name of the Father, unless your into Sabellianism or modalism.
Because the Bible is clear:
GREEK TEXT: “...ἀλλ᾿ ἡμῖν εἷς Θεὸς...
You can put it in as large a type as you want but if you fobid the use of indefinite articles in translation from Greek to English - you only destroy the English and turn the Bible into nonsense.:slap:
Just like to make a point about the inclusion or exclusion of indefinite articles in English translations from the Greek.
As "an" excercise try removing every indefinite article "...a..." or "...an..." etc., from all English translations of the NT or LXX and see what sort of English you have...
Also compare:
LATIN TEXT: ...ut Christum demonstrem et Deum et Dominum virtutum et Jacob per similitudinem vocari a Spiritu sancto... - (Page 327, Dialogus Cum Tryphone Judaeo. Tomus Primus [Book I], Patres Apostolici, COLLECTIO SELECTA SS. ECCLESIAE PATRUM, Complectens Exquisitissima Opera...