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David's Child

dybmh

דניאל יוסף בן מאיר הירש
[assuming you are of the opinion that he sinned]
I'm wrestling with this... Did David sin or not... that's where I'm stuck. I keep finding more and more sources that say there was no sin. But, 2 Shmuel 12:13 says there was.

Did you look at Zohar 2:107 yet that Tumah found in the other thread?
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
I'm wrestling with this... Did David sin or not... that's where I'm stuck. I keep finding more and more sources that say there was no sin. But, 2 Shmuel 12:13 says there was.

Did you look at Zohar 2:107 yet that Tumah found in the other thread?
I read the Zohar quote -- kudos to Tumah for tracking it down. As to the sin, the talmud has much to say on whether David sinned.
 

Jayhawker Soule

-- untitled --
Premium Member
I read the Zohar quote -- kudos to Tumah for tracking it down. As to the sin, the talmud has much to say on whether David sinned.

Then there's the question of how one reconciles, e.g., Yoma 22b Shabbat 56a.

Truth be told, I struggle with Torah, and I'm OK with that, but sometimes I think that Talmud is simply beyond me. It's frustrating. :(
 

dybmh

דניאל יוסף בן מאיר הירש
I read the Zohar quote
If in 2nd Shmuel 12:13, HeEvir, is translated as "passed", do you think that it ( the verse 12:13 ) agrees with the Zohar in this.

David passed the orders for Uriah thru Joab? ( that's what I'm seeing in the Zohar )
The sin was passed on, and the boy became ill? ( This is 2 Shmuel 12:13 paraphrased roughly with 'passed' instead of 'remitted' )

Note: I looked up HeEvir on sefaria's dictionary. It looks like it's often translated as "passed".
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
If in 2nd Shmuel 12:13, HeEvir, is translated as "passed", do you think that it ( the verse 12:13 ) agrees with the Zohar in this.

David passed the orders for Uriah thru Joab? ( that's what I'm seeing in the Zohar )
The sin was passed on, and the boy became ill? ( This is 2 Shmuel 12:13 paraphrased roughly with 'passed' instead of 'remitted' )

Note: I looked up HeEvir on sefaria's dictionary. It looks like it's often translated as "passed".
I don't see the use of he'evir as referring to the passing on of the orders. My Zoharic knowledge is effectively non-existent, but the discussion of Yoav, to my eyes, is more a discussion of culpability in transmitting the message. David was the ultimate authority and people were said to be his, so to send a message through a subordinate who was just passing it along should not cause the subordinate to be punished.
 

dybmh

דניאל יוסף בן מאיר הירש
I don't see the use of he'evir as referring to the passing on of the orders. My Zoharic knowledge is effectively non-existent, but the discussion of Yoav, to my eyes, is more a discussion of culpability in transmitting the message. David was the ultimate authority and people were said to be his, so to send a message through a subordinate who was just passing it along should not cause the subordinate to be punished.
OK, thank you.
 

Tumah

Veteran Member
Then there's the question of how one reconciles, e.g., Yoma 22b Shabbat 56a.

Truth be told, I struggle with Torah, and I'm OK with that, but sometimes I think that Talmud is simply beyond me. It's frustrating. :(
Reconciling Talmud passages is a big part of Talmud study. Noting the discrepancies isn't something to be frustrated about, that's where all the joy in learning Talmud comes from.
In this case, you can either take the position that those two passages are two different opinions, or you can apply the Talmudic dictum that for righteous people, G-d sees the tiniest of their sins as very severe and describes it to us in those terms. (This is not my own opinion, I found this among commentaries, possibly including Maimoindes.) For someone like David, what he did was as severe as performing adultery and we relate to that. But in actuality, what he did wasn't actually adultery, and we relate to that too.
 

dybmh

דניאל יוסף בן מאיר הירש
This is not my own opinion, I found this among commentaries, possibly including Maimoindes.)
It's in the english translation of Mikraoth Gidoloth. The source they cite is Rabeinnu Nissim. It's also attached to 12:9.

In the english the disctintion ( apparently ) is being made between a "transgression" and a "sin". And that is confusing to me. That's what led me back to HeEvir. Which may be a total dead-end, admittedly.

Edit: OH: The comment begins the logic with introducing an eccentric spelling ...
 

Tumah

Veteran Member
It's in the english translation of Mikraoth Gidoloth. The source they cite is Rabeinnu Nissim. It's also attached to 12:9.
Do they give a source where he wrote this? I don't know of any commentary on Tanach by that Rabbi. Maybe in his sermons?

In the english the disctintion ( apparently ) is being made between a "transgression" and a "sin". And that is confusing to me.
In which verse? By which commentary?


That's what led me back to HeEvir. Which may be a total dead-end, admittedly.
Well, at least I don't know anyone who gives that interpretation. You can also find the word used with this meaning in Micah 7:18 and Job 7:21
 

dybmh

דניאל יוסף בן מאיר הירש
Do they give a source where he wrote this? I don't know of any commentary on Tanach by that Rabbi. Maybe in his sermons?


In which verse? By which commentary?



Well, at least I don't know anyone who gives that interpretation. You can also find the word used with this meaning in Micah 7:18 and Job 7:21
Here's the book I'm looking at ( in a spoiler because the image is large )

861161446_o.jpg

It's on page 325.

Maybe what you're looking for is Drashot Ha-Ran, Drasha 6? That's at the end of the comments attributed to Rabeinnu Nissim that's atached to "La'Ahsos" in Sefer Shmuel Beis 12:9.
 

Jake1001

Computer Simulator
Shalom, I'm currently listening to Rabbi Skobac live on Tenak Talk so this is brief as I'm trying to listen. The chatters came to talking about King David and his first child with Batsheva. Why did the child die?

Thanks.
Only G-d knows. That was easy -;)
 
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