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Jeremiah 31:32

Tumah

Veteran Member
In general, I consider "Christianity", as a "flock doomed to slaughter"(Ze 11:7), and sorely misled on all fronts, but among them you will find remnants of Joseph, and the children of Abraham.

Actually, Joseph saved all 11 tribes of Israel, including Judah, from starvation, by providing supplies of grain. The U.S. supplies would not be Joseph, but provided from his remnant, which according to Joel 3:2, "are scattered among the nations."[/quote]

The verse actually says "sheep of slaughter". The buyers, sellers and shepherds are the leaders of all the nations we've been exiled to.

The remnant of Joseph is Israel. Gen. 48:14-16 "And Israel sent his right hand... and he blessed Joseph, and he said '...bless the lads and call them by my name..." Also see the book of Hosea in numerous places from 4:16 onward.

Not sure how you're getting what you're getting out of Joel. It's Israel that's scattered among the nations. Joel 3(4 in Jewish version):2
"And I will gather all the nations... and I will be in judgement with them there about my nation and inheritance that [were] scattered in the nations..."

Judaism does not really on Scriptures alone. It is not a history book, it uses history to teach. But the parts that are not relevant to the lesson are left out. So we use other sources to fill them in. The story presented by our Tradition conveys a slightly different picture.

I don't see Joseph as being a king. He was not a king when he rescued Israel in Egypt, and I don't think he will be a king in the future with respect to Obadiah.

That's nice. See Gen. 41:40 onward. That's ruler-ship no matter how you slice it.

As for Obadiah 1:18, it reads Joseph who will be a "fire", and it does not mention Persia. How do you come up with your conclusion? Not that Persian can't destroy Esau by trying to destroy Israel, but I don't see your reference.

Sorry, those were meant to be two separate statements. I didn't mean for them to be connected. Joseph is not Persia. The Edom/Persia war statement was meant in response to your implication that the Israeli wars were related to the eschatological wars.


As for what kind of "fire", that would be answered in Ze 14:12.

That is a plague not a fire. The verse doesn't use any vocabulary related to fire. Joseph's fire and Esau's hay is metaphorical. It just means that Joseph is the most destructive of forces when against Esau. Zech 14:12 is G-d doing the work, not Joseph.

It relates to Zechariah 12:10, and Ze 14, and Ez 37:19, have not apparently been enacted with respect to Judah and the inhabitants of Jerusalem.

The only relation between these verses is that they are eschatological in content.
I never said that any of these verses happened yet, so I'm still not sure what you mean.

And what "spirit" is that? Will it be like the Spirit of Is 44:3, or like "My Spirit" poured out on the house of Israel, in Ez 39:29, or Joel 2:28? This year, the blood moon will supposedly happen on Passover, as supposedly happened in 1948,67, & 73, and Joel 2:31 is tied to Joel 2:28, "I pour out My Spirit in those days". Joel 2:31,"And the moon into blood".

No, all those times it says "My Spirit." Not every time the word "spirit" is used does it mean G-d's Spirit. I mean if it makes you feel better, you can look at it in the same way as Ex. 31:3 or Isa. 11:2, where the Spirit of G-d doesn't just represent G-d revealing Himself, but boosts certain attributes. In the case of Ex. it improves wisdom, understanding and knowledge. In Isa. also council, strength and fear of G-d. So here you can say the Spirit of G-d will rest on them and boost their grace in G-d's eyes an evoke their desire to supplicate Him. Either way, the result is the same.

Is the house of Judah, neither here nor there? Is the house of Judah limited to those who live in Judea, or will the 6.5 million in the U.S. be included? I was looking for something more definitive. I think there is more to the "house of David" than you have presented.

2 Samuel 5:7 NAS Nevertheless, David captured the stronghold of Zion, that is the city of David.
2 Kings 19:31 NAS 'For out of Jerusalem will go forth a remnant, and out of Mount Zion survivors. The zeal of the LORD will perform this.
Psalm 2:6 NAS"But as for Me, I have installed My King Upon Zion, My holy mountain."
Psalm 14:7 NAS Oh , that the salvation of Israel would come out of Zion ! When the LORD restores His captive people, Jacob will rejoice, Israel will be glad.
Is 56:6,"6 "Also the foreigners who join themselves to the LORD, To minister to Him, and to love the name of the LORD, To be His servants, every one who keeps from profaning the Sabbath And holds fast My covenant ; 7 Even those I will bring to My holy mountain

I am not trying to contradict or disregard those verses. I think the verse specifically refers to the House of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem because that is where the war is holding at that point - at Jerusalem, just look at verse 9. I'm not really sure what you are disagreeing with me about the House of David.
 

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
Tumah wrote:
Quote:
Originally Posted by 2ndpillar View Post
As for what kind of "fire", that would be answered in Ze 14:12.

That is a plague not a fire. The verse doesn't use any vocabulary related to fire. Joseph's fire and Esau's hay is metaphorical. It just means that Joseph is the most destructive of forces when against Esau. Zech 14:12 is G-d doing the work, not Joseph.

The quote from Ze 14:12, was almost word for word the description given in a book describing the effects of Hiroshema. "their flesh will rot while they stand on their feet, and their eyes will rot in their sockets, and their tongue will rot in their mouth." To describe the source of the "plague" as a fire, would be about as good as you could expect. I think the only difference between the book's description and Zechariah, was that their eyes would run down their face.
 

Tumah

Veteran Member
The quote from Ze 14:12, was almost word for word the description given in a book describing the effects of Hiroshema. "their flesh will rot while they stand on their feet, and their eyes will rot in their sockets, and their tongue will rot in their mouth." To describe the source of the "plague" as a fire, would be about as good as you could expect. I think the only difference between the book's description and Zechariah, was that their eyes would run down their face.

Be that as it may...
 

Dinner123

Member
he is informed that Jesus will be killed (Matt. 16:21). His response: "God forbid it, lord! This shall never happen to you" (Matt. 16:22). See, also, Mk. 9:31-32; Mk. 16:10-11; Jn. 20:9.
Peter and his fellow fishermen didn't know the scriptures very well at the time.

Even Jesus didn’t see Isaiah 53 as crucial to his messianic claims – why else did he call the Jews children of the devil for not believing in him before the alleged resurrection (Jn. 8:39-47)?
Because it was obvious who He was. And the miracles He did made them without excuse.
And why did he later request that God "remove this cup from me" (Mk. 14:36) – didn’t he know that a "removal of the cup" would violate the gentile understanding of Isaiah 53?
You left out one part. Where He said nevertheless, not my will, but thine be done. He submitted His will unto God as an example of us how to do so when we don't want to.
And third, even if we accept the gentile Christian interpretation of Isaiah 53, where is it indicated (either in Isaiah 53 or anywhere else in our Jewish Scriptures) that you must believe in this "Messiah" to get the benefits?
B. CONTEXT
Psalm 2:12 Kiss the Son, lest he be angry, and ye perish from the way, when his wrath is kindled but a little. Blessed are all they that put their trust in him.

Deuteronomy 32:20 And he said, I will hide my face from them, I will see what their end shall be: for they are a very froward generation, children in whom is no faith.

John 12:36 While ye have light, believe in the light, that ye may be the children of light. These things spake Jesus, and departed, and did hide himself from them.

In chapter 52, for example, Israel is described as "oppressed without cause" (v.4) and "taken away" (v.5), yet God promises a brighter future ahead, one in which Israel will again prosper and be redeemed in the sight of all the nations (v.1-3, 8-12)
Technically it is mostly talking about Jerusalem the spiritual city not the physical. As we see in verse 1. No more will unclean or uncircumcised come in. That's impossible for a physical earthly city. It's a spiritual city. The Jerusalem from heaven. The same with chapter 54.

Jew and Christian alike agree that chapter 53 is actually a continuation of the prophecy which begins at 52:13.
True.
52:13 "Behold, My servant will prosper." Israel in the singular is called God’s servant throughout Isaiah, both explicitly (Isa. 41:8-9; 4 rather than all Israel4:1-2; 45:4; 48:20; 49:3) and implicitly (Isa. 42:19-20; 43:10) –
Incorrect. We can show that Israel is not the only one called servant in Isaiah.

  • Isaiah 37:35 David is called His Servant
  • Isaiah 49:5-6 the Servant is formed to bring Jacob(Israel) back to God. Therefore it is not the nation of Israel, but obviously the Messiah! Give Him glory.
the Messiah is not.
Incorrect, the Servant(Isa 49:5-6) that is sent to bring Jacob back to God is obviously the Messiah.

is God His own servant?
By Jesus the Son of Man.
52:15 tells us explicitly that it is the nations of the world, the gentiles, who are doing the talking in Isaiah 53.
Incorrect. 52:15 shows us that whoever He is, He will sprinkle many nations. In other words with the blood of the Covenant; Just as Moses sprinkled the people. This shows us that He will establish His Covenant with more than just Jews but with many nations. When and how has the nation of Israel sprinkled the gentiles? It's balderdash.
53:1 "And to whom has the arm of the L-rd been revealed?" In Isaiah, and throughout our Scriptures, God’s "arm" refers to the physical redemption of the Jewish people from the oppression of other nations (see, e.g., Isa. 52:8-12; Isa. 63:12; Deut. 4:34; Deut. 7:19; Ps. 44:3).
Incorrect. Isa 52:10 is about the Messiah the Arm of the Lord. The ends of the earth "see" the "yshuw'ah" = Yeshua of our God.
Isaiah 52:10 The Lord hath made bare his holy arm in the eyes of all the nations; and all the ends of the earth shall see the salvation of our God.
53:3 "Despised and rejected of men." While this is clearly applicable to Israel (see Isa. 60:15; Ps. 44:13-14), it cannot be reconciled with the New Testament account of Jesus, a man who was supposedly "praised by all" (Lk. 4:14-15) and followed by multitudes (Matt. 4:25), who would later acclaim him as a prophet upon his triumphal entry into Jerusalem (Matt. 21:9-11). Even as he was taken to be crucified, a multitude bemoaned his fate (Lk. 23:27). Jesus had to be taken by stealth, as the rulers feared "a riot of the people" (Mk. 14:1-2).
You're taking Luke 4:14-15 out of context. At that point in His ministry He was obviously glorified of all, but we humans are fickle. One example is John 6:66 From that time many of his disciples went back, and walked no more with him.

As for the rest of those references, there was indeed a large grassroots following of Jesus, mostly poorer people and such that would have been considered a rabble but he was hated and feared by the leaders and their followers (Herod and the High priest) and the majority of the wealthy religious classes called the Pharisees and Sadducees. They got together and said anyone who proclaimed Him as Messiah would be kicked out of the synagogue, (John 9:22) and yet you pretend He was loved by all! If He was loved by all, then all Jews would be Christians to this day.

Luke 13:31
The same day there came certain of the Pharisees, saying unto him, Get thee out, and depart hence: for Herod will kill thee.
Israel’s adversities are frequently likened to sickness
That is why Messiah must be acquainted with these things because He is sent to a people that are afflicted.
53:4 "Surely our diseases he carried and our pains he bore." In Matt. 8:17, this is correctly translated, and said to be literally (not spiritually) fulfilled in Jesus’ healing of the sick, a reading inconsistent with the Christian mistranslation of 53:4 itself.
And how does Israel bare the gentiles disease and pain? The nation of Israel really doesn't. Jesus does fulfill this. He takes those diseases from the people. Cast thy burden upon the Lord, and he shall sustain thee: (Psalms 55:22)
Isaiah 61:1 The Spirit of the Lord God is upon me; because the Lord hath anointed me to preach good tidings unto the meek; he hath sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to them that are bound;




To be continued ....
 

Dinner123

Member
continued ...

53:5 "But he was wounded from (NOTE: not for) our transgressions, he was crushed from (AGAIN: not for) our iniquities." Whereas the nations had thought the Servant (Israel) was undergoing Divine retribution for its sins (53:4), they now realize that the Servant’s sufferings stemmed from their actions and sinfulness. This theme is further developed throughout our Jewish Scriptures – see, e.g., Jer. 50:7; Jer. 10:25.
We can easily see what verse 5 means by reading verse 10.It was Him being a sacrifice/offering for our sins.

Isaiah 53:10 Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand.

ALSO: Note that the Messiah "shall not fail nor be crushed till he has set the right in the earth" (Isa. 42:4).
So you admit that the Servant in Isaiah 42 is the Messiah?? :areyoucra But, yes it really is the Messiah and how He sets judgment in the earth is by the cross and He did not fail nor was He crushed by the cross but as we know He conquered the grave. It was a conquest. For he hath looked down from the height of his sanctuary; from heaven did the Lord behold the earth; To hear the groaning of the prisoner; to loose those that are appointed to death; To declare the name of the Lord in Zion, and his praise in Jerusalem; (Psalm 102:19-21)
And he saw that there was no man, and wondered that there was no intercessor: therefore his arm brought salvation unto him; and his righteousness, it sustained him. (Isaiah 59:16)
I will ransom them from the power of the grave; I will redeem them from death: O death, I will be thy plagues; O grave, I will be thy destruction: repentance shall be hid from mine eyes. (Hosea 13:14)
He sent his word, and healed them, and delivered them from their destructions. (Psalm 107:20)

53:7 "He was oppressed and he was afflicted, yet he did not open his mouth. Like a lamb that is led to slaughter, and like a sheep that is silent before its shearers, so he did not open his mouth." Note that in the prior chapter (Isa. 52), Israel is said to have been oppressed and taken away without cause (52:4-5). A similar theme is developed in Psalm 44, wherein King David speaks of Israel’s faithfulness even in the face of gentile oppression (44:17- 18) and describes Israel as "sheep to be slaughtered" in the midst of the unfaithful gentile nations (44:22,11).
Regarding the claim that Jesus "did not open his mouth" when faced with oppression and affliction, see Matt. 27:46, Jn. 18:23, 36-37.
You're taking those verses out of context. We can see that in context He refused to answer their accusations against Him to defend Himself. He did answer their questions, but not to counter their accusations. Where as you claim that the nation of Israel never defends themselves against anyone??? Excuse me, that's blatantly false. They have attempted to defend themselves and still do. They don't have a membership in the U.N. for nothing. I don't knock for doing that. But that proves Israel does not fulfill the prophecy.
53:8 "From dominion and judgement he was taken away." Note the correct translation of the Hebrew. The Christians are fowas given just 10 per cent chance of survival after suffering a one-in-a-million allergic reaction to widely available Zantac tablets.
rced to mistranslate, since – by Jesus’ own testimony – he never had any rights to rulership or judgement, at least not on the "first coming." See, e.g., Jn. 3:17; Jn. 8:15; Jn. 12:47; Jn. 18:36.
Incorrect. I have a link right here to a Tanakh that says prison. Also of every Christian version I checked not one said dominion. As if thousands of Christian scholars can't read Hebrew anyway. It's just a language.

53:8 He was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for he was cut off out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken. Yeshayahu (Isaiah): Chapter 53 | Jewish Virtual Library

53:8 "He was cut off out of the land of the living."

53:9 "His grave was assigned with wicked men." See Ez. 37:11-14, wherein Israelis described as "cut off" and God promises to open its "graves" and bring Israel back into its own land. Other examples of figurative deaths include Ex. 10:17; 2 Sam. 9:8; 2 Sam. 16:9.
You can twist it that way, but it fits Jesus better.

53:8 "From my peoples’ sins, there was injury to them." Here the Prophet makes absolutely clear, to anyone familiar with Biblical Hebrew, that the oppressed Servant is a collective Servant, not a single individual. The Hebrew word "lamoh", when used in our Scriptures, always means "to them" never "to him" and may be found, for example, in Psalm 99:7 – "They kept his testimonies, and the statute that He gave to them."
Incorrect. We know it is singular. See Psalm 11:7 and Job 22:2. And you didn't explain your interpretation of the verse. What does that mean for Israel?

53:9 "And with the rich in his deaths." Perhaps King James should have changed the original Hebrew, which again makes clear that we are dealing with a collective Servant, i.e., Israel, which will "come to life" when the exile ends (Ez. 37:14).
Nice twist, but explain how Israel makes their grave with the rich. We know Jesus fulfills this.

53:9 "He had done no violence." See Matt. 21:12; Mk. 11:15-16; Lk. 19:45; Lk. 19:27; Matt. 10:34 and Lk. 12:51; then judge for yourself whether this passage is truly consistent with the New Testament account of Jesus.
Are you telling me that the nation of Israel has done no violence??? Excuse me, but that's crazy. I don't know of very many people that will buy that. Obviously Jesus drove them out of the temple but He killed no one. As God chastens, so did Jesus and a whip is not for anything but chastisement. Whom God loves He chastens, that they may escape the pit that is dug for the wicked. Therefore, let us not despise the chastening of the Lord. As for Luke 19:27 apparently, you consider it violence to tell a parable ... Interestingly ridiculous.

Matt 10:34 in context, is not talking of a physical sword by any means. But obviously a sword of division. Because families would be divided against each other. Some believing and some disbelieving. For the Word of God is sharper than any two edged sword. Don't you know the scriptures are spiritual???


53:10 "He shall see his seed." The Hebrew word for "seed", used in this verse, always refers to physical descendants in our Jewish Scriptures. See, e.g., Gen. 12:7; Gen. 15:13; Gen. 46:6; Ex. 28:43. A different word, generally translated as "sons", is used to refer to spiritual descendants (see Deut. 14:1, e.g.).
Yes, Jesus has descendants that is so clear from the new and old Testament. As Jesus said: Marvel not that ye must be born anew. (John 4:3-5) If we are born by receiving His Spirit then we are His children begotten of Him. (Gal. 4:6)

53:10 "He will prolong his days." Not only did Jesus die young, but how could the days be prolonged of someone who is alleged to be God?
Jesus days are prolonged by the resurrection. He is alive forever more. As for Jesus being God, yes in the Spirit. But in Isaiah 9:6 we see that He is a child that is born. So He has a human nature that is created at birth and His days are prolonged. But yet He is called everlasting Father.

53:11 "With his knowledge the righteous one, my Servant, will cause many to be just." Note again the correct translation: the Servant will cause many to be just, he will not "justify the many." The Jewish mission is to serve as a "light to the nations" which will ultimately lead the world to a knowledge of the one true God, this both by example (Deut. 4:5-8; Zech. 8:23) and by instructing the nations in God’s Law (Isa. 2:3-4; Micah 4:2-3).
Maybe you forgot one part of it.
"He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities.

So How does He make them just?? By bearing their iniquities. Let's see someone really spin that to mean the nation of Israel instead of the sacrificial Lamb of God. The nation of Israel doesn't bear the iniquities of the world. That's nonsense.

53:12 "Therefore, I will divide a portion to him with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the mighty." If Jesus is God, does the idea of reward have any meaning? Is it not rather the Jewish people – who righteously bore the sins of the world and yet remained faithful to God (Ps. 44) – who will be rewarded, and this in the manner described more fully in Isaiah chapters 52 and 54?
Yes He is rewarded. Jesus is God manifest in human form. And, BTW His reward that satisfies Him is His bride. The new Jerusalem, the church. (Isa 54:5)

I have more answers to come. I had a lot to respond to. ...
 
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Dinner123

Member
Oy vey. :facepalm:
What's with this obsession with blood? Do you worship vampires?
Blood was never that important. In fact, sacrifices are not that important relative to sincerely repenting for the sins.
Animals were the main property people owned at that time. The sacrifice was the loss of that property.
God does recognize the atonement of blood, because the life is in the blood. (Lev. 17:11) And to Adam and Eve it was this commandment in so many words: you'll surely die if you sin. (Gen. 2:17) So blood is for life that is poured out for sin. The blood was on the altar, (Ex. 29:16 etc.) the blood was sprinkled on the ark of Covenant. (Lev. 16:14) And it is the blood of the Covenant that sets the prisoners free. Zechariah 9:11 As for thee also, by the blood of thy covenant I have sent forth thy prisoners out of the pit wherein is no water.
No man can redeem himself, or save himself from death. For the redemption of our souls is precious. If what you're saying is true, then would God just accept gold or silver as atonement? But, the people had to take money and buy the necessary animal to sacrifice. Because it does matter. And blood was the only thing that was recognized upon the door posts in Egypt, so that death would pass over that house.
Where do I even begin?
1) Jesus being executed is not a sacrifice for you. You lost nothing of value. You sacrificed nothing because jesus was executed
2) Jesus didn't even sacrifice himself. He was caught and executed. It's not like he slit his wrists, or closed himself in a garage with the car running.
Since he whinned "why have you forsaken me?" he didn't want to die.
So I should have to gain my own salvation? That's just self-righteous. We know that true righteousness only comes from God's mercy. And God said "I, even I, am he that blotteth out thy transgressions for mine own sake,"

As for Jesus "whinned" is that what you have to say for someone who fulfilled the prophecy Psalms 22? He had to submit Himself to the will of God, so He is an example to His followers of how to submit to the will of God when your flesh doesn't want to. Jesus had to forsake His own flesh unto death, otherwise He is immortal. This He did and said “it is finished” and to God, “receive my Spirit”. Likewise, to be saved we need to forsake our flesh in a way and let it be slain. Which is the faith of Abraham who was willing to sacrifice his son(his own flesh and blood son) of the promise.

And Jesus did sacrifice Himself. The Law says let every word be established by two or three witnesses. 1. He claimed He could pray for legions of angels. (Matt. 26:53) 2. They could have no power over Him unless it is given from above. (John 19:11) 3. That no man takes His life, but He lays it down. (John 10:18)
3) Human sacrifice is a grave sin in judaism.
Then why did God tell Abraham to offer Isaac even if it was test? Jesus is the offering of the new Covenant not an offering of the old Covenant.
It even has nothing to do with the actual messiah.
Here are quotes from the Talmud that I found easily that show us what these scholars thought of Isaiah 53.

Babylonian Talmud (Sanhedrin 98b): "Messiah ...what is his name? The Rabbis say,'The leprous one'; those of the house of the Rabbi (Jehuda Hanassi, the author of the Mishna, 135-200) say: 'Cholaja' (The sickly), for it says, 'Surely he has borne our sicknesses' etc. (Isa.53,4)."

Babylonian Talmud, (Sanhedrin 98), p.2 "Rabbi Yochanan said, The Messiah-what is his name?... And out Rabbis said. "the pale one"... is his name, as it is written "Surely he took up our infirmities and carried our sorrows-yet we considered him stricken by G-d, smitten by him and afflicted."

Talmud-Mas.Sanhedrin 98b What is his [the Messiah's] name?... The Rabbis said: His name is ‘the leper scholar,’ as it is written, Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him a leper, smitten of God, and afflicted. (This was in direct reference to Isaiah 53:4). (1)
And that is what G-D told Abraham. We agree on something. Obviously what the christian bible say has no relevance for me.
Book of Genesis is literal and yet allegorical by God's foreknowledge and providence. Abraham spoke of the Messiah, who is the Lamb God provides.
 
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Dinner123

Member
So you are going to compare actual blood of animals that are acceptable as sacrifices and sacrificed in the method of other sacrifices, that was sprinkled on all the people, to what? To the blood a person that can't be used as a sacrifice, that wasn't sacrificed the way sacrifices are sacrificed that wasn't sprinkled on any of the people?
Human sacrifice is forbidden in the Law, but Jesus body was given for the new Covenant. By this He sprinkles many peoples and nations. (Isa 52:15) As we've seen in Jeremiah 31:31-34 the new Covenant is cut upon the heart and not cut into physical tablets of stone. In like manner, the blood that is sprinkled is sprinkled in a spiritual sense and not in an actual physical sense.

Isa. 52:15
So shall he sprinkle many nations; the kings shall shut their mouths at him: for that which had not been told them shall they see; and that which they had not heard shall they consider.
G-d commanded us to do something but doesn't give us the ability to do it and then holds it against us?
We can only be saved by His mercy and we all fall short of His commands. To believe otherwise is self-righteousness. For the soul that is lifted up is not right, but the just shall live by his faith. (see Habbakuk 2:4)
Jeremiah even prophecies that the scribe made the Law in vain! That is the weakness of the Law; no one obeys it.
Jeremiah 8:8 How do ye say, We are wise, and the law of the Lord is with us? Lo, certainly in vain made he it; the pen of the scribes is in vain.
And, who can claim to love the Law more than the writer of Psalm 119?? Yet even he claimed that he had gone astray!
Psalm 119:176 I have gone astray like a lost sheep; seek thy servant; for I do not forget thy commandments.
And every one has gone astray! In verse 1; Psalm 53 speaks of those who don't believe in God. But in verse 2 it switches to include everyone. Jews, or gentiles it makes no difference.
Psalm 53:2-3 God looked down from heaven upon the children of men, to see if there were any that did understand, that did seek God. Every one of them is gone back: they are altogether become filthy; there is none that doeth good, no, not one.
So, no wonder God sent a Sacrifice; for us that we may be turned unto Him again!
Isaiah 53:6 All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the Lord hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.
That was an external covenant and this one will be internal.
Correct. This is an internal Covenant unlike the old Covenant that was external upon the tablets of stone and dealt with physical earthly rituals which were types and shadows of heavenly realities. For example the mercy seat was overshadowed by two figures of Cherubim. But, in heaven there is an actual throne that is overshadowed by actual Cherubim. And Jesus body is the veil that separates us from the holiest place. By slaying His body; Jesus made an access for us unto the throne of God's mercy. Now we can go in there and appear before that throne of mercy and obtain grace and reality which is the new Covenant. We are allowed to access God's mercy seat with boldness through the body of Jesus.
none of the verses you brought actually describe that.
Why are you sidetracking the debate? If a thousand years is as if it is already past to God then there is no time to God.
You have no brought any proof that G-d interacts with us, through Scriptures, is manner that transcends time by randomly speaking about future events in the middle of describing a past event.
I don't think it is random. Every single letter matters. God is speaking of creation there, and in a way creation is not even complete until the new heaven and the new earth are come in full. Then the children of the resurrection will shine forth; and these are the children of whom the verse speaks. The Messiah is the firstborn from the dead. We are only resurrected by His resurrection. He must come first. In Isa. 26:19. We won't arise except by His dead body's resurrection.

Isaiah 26:19 Thy dead men shall live, together with my dead body shall they arise. Awake and sing, ye that dwell in dust: for thy dew is as the dew of herbs, and the earth shall cast out the dead.

(YLT) Isaiah 26:19 `Thy dead live -- My dead body they rise. Awake and sing, ye dwellers in the dust, For the dew of herbs [is] thy dew, And the land of Rephaim thou causest to fall.

Jesus body never saw corruption, because it was raised after only three days. That was to soon for the body to begin to decay.

Psalm 16:10 For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.

The beginning of the next verse is the Messiah speaking. The second part is God's response unto the Messiah. Though His days are shortened (specifically by 3; Matthew 12:40) yet His years have no end because of the resurrection. (Revelation 1:18) This is about the death and resurrection of the Messiah.

He weakened my strength in the way; he shortened my days. I said, O my God, take me not away in the midst of my days:


Here is God's response to the Son of God, the Messiah.


thy years are throughout all generations. Of old hast thou laid the foundation of the earth: and the heavens are the work of thy hands. They shall perish, but thou shalt endure: yea, all of them shall wax old like a garment; as a vesture shalt thou change them, and they shall be changed: But thou art the same, and thy years shall have no end. (Psalm 102:23-27)

You have no answer better than "royal we". We know they used it in the middle ages or so. I'd like to see you try to prove that kings used the "royal we" prior to 2000 B.C. According to wikipedia the oldest reference to it is from 1169 AD. Let me know if you can do better than that. And the kings used it as an indication of their Divine right to rule. In other words, the kings would use that term to refer to themselves working conjointly with God. So explain why God would use the royal we?
you run behind the translations made by people with a motive.
So you have no bias? You are by definition biased because you are taking a side in a debate. And, there are Christian scholars that know Hebrew very well.
Secondly, in verse 22 the "holy ones" are clearly Israel.
The Israel of God is a holy spiritual nation created by God and known by God. Not confined to any one earthly nation.
This has nothing to do with Scriptures.
All things of God are the same. You cannot understand them without His revelation.
G-d sets the world in our heart. That has nothing to do with being able to understand Scriptures.
It has plenty to do with it. It says "so that no man can find out the work that God maketh"
If the world is in our hearts, then how can our hearts see the thoughts of God that are as high as the heavens?

Isaiah 55:9 For as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than your ways, and my thoughts than your thoughts.

Therefore, naturally our hearts blinded to the things of God.

Isaiah 6:9-12 And he said, Go, and tell this people, Hear ye indeed, but understand not; and see ye indeed, but perceive not. Make the heart of this people fat, and make their ears heavy, and shut their eyes; lest they see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart, and convert, and be healed. Then said I, Lord, how long? And he answered, Until the cities be wasted without inhabitant, and the houses without man, and the land be utterly desolate, And the Lord have removed men far away, and there be a great forsaking in the midst of the land.
Scriptures is very easy to understand. All you need to do is read it.
It is the Law that they were to obey that is easy to understand. Why? Because God has already given that surface revelation. Even then, that doesn't mean there aren't deeper things therein, for those whose eyes God has opened. Psalm 119:18 Open thou mine eyes, that I may behold wondrous things out of thy law.
All scripture is revelation; not figured out by the human mind, but given by God unto man. There are layers of revelation. If you only skim the surface you'll have that surface revelation, but you'll not get into the deeper things of God. The mind of God is infinitely deep.
But some scripture is hard to understand even on the surface. And requires study and revelation to understand. These are parables, dark sayings and mysteries.
So can you provide verses where David is actually speaking words that he doesn't intend?
That's a sidetrack. What David said in the Psalms is inspired by the anointing of God and is prophetic.
explain why he, his children and everyone relevant to him continue to perform sacrifices even though David knew G-d didn't want it?
You don't understand. David prophesied of the giving of the body of the Messiah.
Don't you think you are going at it backwards?
Trust in the Lord with all thine heart; and lean not unto thine own understanding. In all thy ways acknowledge him, and he shall direct thy paths. (Prov 3:5-6)
We must seek the things of God by faith and not by our own understanding.
 

CMike

Well-Known Member
Human sacrifice is forbidden in the Law, but Jesus body was given for the new Covenant. By this He sprinkles many peoples and nations. (Isa 52:15) As we've seen in Jeremiah 31:31-34 the new Covenant is cut upon the heart and not cut into physical tablets of stone. In like manner, the blood that is sprinkled is sprinkled in a spiritual sense and not in an actual physical sense.


There is no such thing in judaism.

G-D said in numerous passages that you can't change the Torah.

All that you say is about christianity, it has nothing to with jews or the Tanach.




Isa. 52:15
So shall he sprinkle many nations; the kings shall shut their mouths at him: for that which had not been told them shall they see; and that which they had not heard shall they consider.


13. Behold My servant shall prosper; he shall be exalted and lifted up, and he shall be very high.

14. As many wondered about you, "How marred his appearance is from that of a man, and his features from that of people!"

And that servant is Israel. It even says "my sevant shall prosper". Jesus didn't prosper he was nailed and executed.




We can only be saved by His mercy and we all fall short of His commands. To believe otherwise is self-righteousness. For the soul that is lifted up is not right, but the just shall live by his faith. (see Habbakuk 2:4)

Absolutely correct. And that "his mercy" refer's to G-D's mercy. In fact, we are commanded to only put our faith in G-D.




Jeremiah even prophecies that the scribe made the Law in vain! That is the weakness of the Law; no one obeys it.
Jeremiah 8:8 How do ye say, We are wise, and the law of the Lord is with us? Lo, certainly in vain made he it; the pen of the scribes is in vain.
And, who can claim to love the Law more than the writer of Psalm 119?? Yet even he claimed that he had gone astray!


Other than G-D we are all human. We all make boo boos. There also have been great jews, and not great jews.




You don't understand. David prophesied of the giving of the body of the Messiah.
Trust in the Lord with all thine heart; and lean not unto thine own understanding. In all thy ways acknowledge him, and he shall direct thy paths. (Prov 3:5-6)
We must seek the things of God by faith and not by our own understanding.
I must have missed it where did David supposedly prophesize regarding the giving of the body of the messiah?

BTW the prophesies concerning the messiah is that he will be a successful warrior.

Not someone meek like jesus was.
 

Tumah

Veteran Member
Then why did God tell Abraham to offer Isaac even if it was test? Jesus is the offering of the new Covenant not an offering of the old Covenant.

1. That was before the Torah was given at Mt. Sinai. There was no law at that point against human sacrifice.
2. That was part of Abraham's test. He knew it was wrong, but G-d commanded him to do it. How will he react.
3. G-d never intended him to sacrifice his son, which is why he never actually did.
4. G-d doesn't actually tell him to sacrifice Isaac. He only tells him to bring him up the mountain as a burnt offering, but not to actually sacrifice him as such.

Here are quotes from the Talmud that I found easily that show us what these scholars thought of Isaiah 53.

Babylonian Talmud (Sanhedrin 98b): "Messiah ...what is his name? The Rabbis say,'The leprous one'; those of the house of the Rabbi (Jehuda Hanassi, the author of the Mishna, 135-200) say: 'Cholaja' (The sickly), for it says, 'Surely he has borne our sicknesses' etc. (Isa.53,4)."

Babylonian Talmud, (Sanhedrin 98), p.2 "Rabbi Yochanan said, The Messiah-what is his name?... And out Rabbis said. "the pale one"... is his name, as it is written "Surely he took up our infirmities and carried our sorrows-yet we considered him stricken by G-d, smitten by him and afflicted."

Talmud-Mas.Sanhedrin 98b What is his [the Messiah's] name?... The Rabbis said: His name is ‘the leper scholar,’ as it is written, Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him a leper, smitten of God, and afflicted. (This was in direct reference to Isaiah 53:4).

You are misunderstanding. The form of exegesis the Rabbis are using there is not the literal meaning of the verse. The closest Christian counterpart I think is called something like "double prophecy" or something like that. Where a given prophecy can have two different intentions. So we have four forms of exegesis used for any given verse and here you are seeing the one called "allusion".
But its best to remember that this form of exegesis takes verses out of context in order to learn isolated ideas. In other words, you're not going to use this form of exegesis to prove something to someone from a different religion who doesn't share your belief in Jewish forms of exegesis.

We don't have any problem applying these verses to the Messiah. That the Messiah is suffering because of our sins is not a novel idea. All the righteous suffer for our sins. That is one of their jobs as our leaders. But if the situation was reversed, I would never consider using these verse to prove that idea to you since it is not the explicit meaning of the passage.[/QUOTE]

Human sacrifice is forbidden in the Law, but Jesus body was given for the new Covenant. By this He sprinkles many peoples and nations. (Isa 52:15) As we've seen in Jeremiah 31:31-34 the new Covenant is cut upon the heart and not cut into physical tablets of stone. In like manner, the blood that is sprinkled is sprinkled in a spiritual sense and not in an actual physical sense.

Isa. 52:15
So shall he sprinkle many nations; the kings shall shut their mouths at him: for that which had not been told them shall they see; and that which they had not heard shall they consider.


Do you see how that answer circumvents the problem?
"What's that? Their Law forbids human sacrifice? NOoo problem! This is the new Law. Problem solved."

Except, as we've demonstrated, there is no Scriptural support for such a thing.

I like what the KJV did there to make it seems as though it is a reference to Jesus. But what the verse actually says is that the nations are the ones being sprinkled not being sprinkled on.

We can only be saved by His mercy and we all fall short of His commands. To believe otherwise is self-righteousness. For the soul that is lifted up is not right, but the just shall live by his faith. (see Habbakuk 2:4)


You are adding a lot to this verse that it doesn't say. The verse is only saying that presumption is bad and that righteous people are those that live with faith in G-d. There is nothing here to indicate a faith based religion...especially in light of the ENTIRE REST OF SCRIPTURES.

Jeremiah even prophecies that the scribe made the Law in vain! That is the weakness of the Law; no one obeys it.
Jeremiah 8:8 How do ye say, We are wise, and the law of the Lord is with us? Lo, certainly in vain made he it; the pen of the scribes is in vain.


You started off on the right track and then you just veered right off. Jeremiah is saying that the scribe write the Law in vain... because no one is following it. That was the general gist of this chapter and the chapter before. Israel isn't following G-d's Law. This verse is saying, since no one is following the Law, the scribes are writing it for nothing. That is not a weakness in the Law, that is a weakness in the people. But the Law of G-d is perfect, it restores the soul (Ps. 19:8).

And, who can claim to love the Law more than the writer of Psalm 119?? Yet even he claimed that he had gone astray!
Psalm 119:176 I have gone astray like a lost sheep; seek thy servant; for I do not forget thy commandments.


You are conflating righteousness with someone who never sinned. This is Eccl. 7:20 "Because man, there is no righteous one in the land who does good and does not sin." In other words, even the righteous sin. In fact, that is probably an indication that one is righteous, "because seven [times] falls the righteous and gets up... (Prov. 24:7). In other words, G-d's righteous are those that are human, that make mistakes but fix them with repentance just as David had done. That is the hope of man, the ability to choose to remove ourselves from our evil ways and return to G-d.

And every one has gone astray! In verse 1; Psalm 53 speaks of those who don't believe in God. But in verse 2 it switches to include everyone. Jews, or gentiles it makes no difference.
Psalm 53:2-3 God looked down from heaven upon the children of men, to see if there were any that did understand, that did seek God. Every one of them is gone back: they are altogether become filthy; there is none that doeth good, no, not one.


However, in context, we can see from verse five that the people this chapter is talking about are those that are the "eaters of my nation." That wasn't thrown in there for nothing.

So, no wonder God sent a Sacrifice; for us that we may be turned unto Him again!

This does not follow.

Isaiah 53:6 All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the Lord hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.

This verse is the nations talking about how they abandoned G-d and how Israel suffered from it.

Correct. This is an internal Covenant unlike the old Covenant that was external upon the tablets of stone and dealt with physical earthly rituals which were types and shadows of heavenly realities. For example the mercy seat was overshadowed by two figures of Cherubim. But, in heaven there is an actual throne that is overshadowed by actual Cherubim. And Jesus body is the veil that separates us from the holiest place. By slaying His body; Jesus made an access for us unto the throne of God's mercy. Now we can go in there and appear before that throne of mercy and obtain grace and reality which is the new Covenant. We are allowed to access God's mercy seat with boldness through the body of Jesus.

Wow, you really took that and ran!
:run:
Same Law. Was external. Now internal. No other changes. End of story.

Why are you sidetracking the debate? If a thousand years is as if it is already past to God then there is no time to God.

No, that means that a thousands years are like yesterday. The fact that there is a yesterday to G-d, implies time has some relevancy to G-d, although perhaps not in the way it does to us. Still I don't disagree with the principle, just that you're not bringing good verses for it. But anyway it doesn't matter. As you said, discussing that will only sidetrack us.

I don't think it is random. Every single letter matters. God is speaking of creation there, and in a way creation is not even complete until the new heaven and the new earth are come in full. Then the children of the resurrection will shine forth; and these are the children of whom the verse speaks. The Messiah is the firstborn from the dead. We are only resurrected by His resurrection. He must come first. In Isa. 26:19. We won't arise except by His dead body's resurrection.

Yes, every single letter matters. We learn differences in the Law based on the presence of a letter. So I am aware of that. However, your interpretation acts as a non sequitor in terms of the passage. The passage is speaking about the creation of man and you interpolate an idea that has no immediate value to that creation story. The verse doesn't need it. Its extra. You add it because it fits the general idea of your other books.
 

Tumah

Veteran Member
Isaiah 26:19 Thy dead men shall live, together with my dead body shall they arise. Awake and sing, ye that dwell in dust: for thy dew is as the dew of herbs, and the earth shall cast out the dead.

(YLT) Isaiah 26:19`Thy dead live -- My dead body they rise. Awake and sing, ye dwellers in the dust, For the dew of herbs [is] thy dew, And the land of Rephaim thou causest to fall.

Are you aware that Isaiah is prophesying that Israel, or specifically Judah (well that probably is a euphemism for Israel anyway) will sing this entire chapter? This isn't G-d talking...

Jesus body never saw corruption, because it was raised after only three days. That was to soon for the body to begin to decay.

Psalm 16:10 For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.

That's not what this verse is saying. "שחת", what your KJV is translating as corruption, is referring to "באר שחת" of Psalms 55:23. What your KJV calls "the pit of destruction." A euphemism for the grave. As is "שאול", what you are translating here as "hell".

I'm not sure why your KJV switches the translations of that word from corruption to destruction. I"m sure its not for ideological purposes...

The beginning of the next verse is the Messiah speaking. The second part is God's response unto the Messiah. Though His days are shortened (specifically by 3; Matthew 12:40) yet His years have no end because of the resurrection. (Revelation 1:18) This is about the death and resurrection of the Messiah.

I'm not sure I understand what you're saying here. The next verse is "You make known to me the path of life..."


He weakened my strength in the way; he shortened my days. I said, O my God, take me not away in the midst of my days:


Here is God's response to the Son of God, the Messiah.


thy years are throughout all generations. Of old hast thou laid the foundation of the earth: and the heavens are the work of thy hands. They shall perish, but thou shalt endure: yea, all of them shall wax old like a garment; as a vesture shalt thou change them, and they shall be changed: But thou art the same, and thy years shall have no end. (Psalm 102:23-27)

This doesn't make any sense. You have two people speaking in the same verse without any indication of a switch. In addition, your entire explanation is taken out of context. This is David speaking to G-d. Verse 24 is parallel to verse 12.

You have no answer better than "royal we". We know they used it in the middle ages or so. I'd like to see you try to prove that kings used the "royal we" prior to 2000 B.C. According to wikipedia the oldest reference to it is from 1169 AD. Let me know if you can do better than that. And the kings used it as an indication of their Divine right to rule. In other words, the kings would use that term to refer to themselves working conjointly with God. So explain why God would use the royal we?

Well, I'm not sure what to tell you. The word "Elo-him" is a plural construct. It is not so incongruous with the "we".

Also, this is not my best answer. This is my simplest answer. I would say that one of my best answers is that G-d is speaking to the earth, saying that the earth would give forth the body and He would give forth the soul.

So you have no bias? You are by definition biased because you are taking a side in a debate. And, there are Christian scholars that know Hebrew very well.

That may be true. But until the response above, I don't believe I've incorporated any Jewish theology into my responses to you. I've only provided as strict a word to word translation as possible and/or discusses interpretation based on context.

If you want, you can argue that using context as a basis for interpretation is a Jewish thing and one you need not rely on. I can accept that.

The Israel of God is a holy spiritual nation created by God and known by God. Not confined to any one earthly nation.

Well, I've demonstrated that this is not true with Isaiah 60:21. Feel free to put your Scriptures where your mouth is.

All things of God are the same. You cannot understand them without His revelation.

It has plenty to do with it. It says "so that no man can find out the work that God maketh"
If the world is in our hearts, then how can our hearts see the thoughts of God that are as high as the heavens?

Isaiah 55:9 For as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than your ways, and my thoughts than your thoughts.[/quote]

You are imposing an interpretation on these verses to fit your theology. But the verses don't explicitly say this and there is no reason to apply just an interpretation.

Context is telling. The previous verse speaks about the wicked changing his way and his thoughts. The following verse says parallels the previous. G-d's ways and thoughts are not like that wicked person's.
G-d is the opposite of evil. Therefore the difference between G-d and this wicked person is the difference between heaven and earth.

Therefore, naturally our hearts blinded to the things of God.

Isaiah 6:9-12 And he said, Go, and tell this people, Hear ye indeed, but understand not; and see ye indeed, but perceive not. ... Then said I, Lord, how long? And he answered, Until the cities be wasted without inhabitant, and the houses without man, and the land be utterly desolate, And the Lord have removed men far away, and there be a great forsaking in the midst of the land.

These verses are saying that Israel is making themselves deaf, etc. to G-d and will only return to G-d once G-d sends destruction to them. It has nothing to do with what we have been talking about.

It is the Law that they were to obey that is easy to understand. Why? Because God has already given that surface revelation. Even then, that doesn't mean there aren't deeper things therein, for those whose eyes God has opened. Psalm 119:18 Open thou mine eyes, that I may behold wondrous things out of thy law.
All scripture is revelation; not figured out by the human mind, but given by God unto man. There are layers of revelation. If you only skim the surface you'll have that surface revelation, but you'll not get into the deeper things of God. The mind of God is infinitely deep.
But some scripture is hard to understand even on the surface. And requires study and revelation to understand. These are parables, dark sayings and mysteries.

Ok, let's go with that. My religion has as mentioned before, four different forms of exegesis. Ranging from the simplest interpretation of the verse to the mystical, esoteric meaning. They are derived in multiple ways: from simply reading the text, comparing and contrasting verses and letters to other verses and letters and of course, the hidden secrets that can only be understood by the holiest of students who dedicate themselves to study under a difficult regiment. So we cover all the bases, from the simplest to the deepest.

Now, after all that's said and done, whose to say that your "deeper" understandings are the correct one and not mine? Mine also require a "holy spirit." Maybe your "deeper" revelations are really coming out of your own mind, a trick of satan, while mine is the true revelation of G-d?

That is why, if you want to talk sense, you need to talk with what is apparent to everyone. If its only in your own head... well then, its only in your own head.

That's a sidetrack. What David said in the Psalms is inspired by the anointing of God and is prophetic.

In other words: to make it fit with my ideology, I will take it out of context and reinterpret it.

You don't understand. David prophesied of the giving of the body of the Messiah.

That remains to be seen.

Trust in the Lord with all thine heart; and lean not unto thine own understanding. In all thy ways acknowledge him, and he shall direct thy paths. (Prov 3:5-6)
We must seek the things of God by faith and not by our own understanding.

Imagine if Paul tried that. I an see it now...
Paul: Hello Mr. Pharisee. I'm here to tell you the great news! G-d doesn't want any sacrifices!
Mr Pharisee: That sounds great, now I can save money on my animals. But...how do you know this?
Paul: Well, David prophesied this hundreds of years ago! He speaks about how G-d doesn't want sacrifices. Save your money! Save your animals! G-d doesn't want them!
Mr. Pharisee: But if David knew G-d didn't want them, why did G-d say He wanted them? And Why was David still offering them?
Paul: Well, I have great news! David was actually saying a prophecy for our times!
Mr Pharisee: Why are you interpreting that as a prophecy when in context he just means that empty sacrifices is not how a person repents. That G-d really wants to see regret over evil deeds?
Paul: Because we need to seek G-d by faith! Not by our own understanding. My faith tells me that your explanation is wrong. Therefore, leave your ideas behind and come join me in serving the god you never heard about until now!!
Mr Pharisee: Your right! Now that I believe you on your word alone, I can see why I was wrong...
 

CMike

Well-Known Member
Babylonian Talmud (Sanhedrin 98b): "Messiah ...what is his name? The Rabbis say,'The leprous one'; those of the house of the Rabbi (Jehuda Hanassi, the author of the Mishna, 135-200) say: 'Cholaja' (The sickly), for it says, 'Surely he has borne our sicknesses' etc. (Isa.53,4)."

Babylonian Talmud, (Sanhedrin 98), p.2 "Rabbi Yochanan said, The Messiah-what is his name?... And out Rabbis said. "the pale one"... is his name, as it is written "Surely he took up our infirmities and carried our sorrows-yet we considered him stricken by G-d, smitten by him and afflicted."

Talmud-Mas.Sanhedrin 98b What is his [the Messiah's] name?... The Rabbis said: His name is ‘the leper scholar,’ as it is written, Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him a leper, smitten of God, and afflicted. (This was in direct reference to Isaiah 53:4). (1)
Book of Genesis is literal and yet allegorical by God's foreknowledge and providence. Abraham spoke of the Messiah, who is the Lamb God provides.

Link?
 

dance-above

Member
Honestly, I don't know why I'm doing this. I already know that in 4-7 posts, two Christians are going to end up fighting over some completely non-relevant passage in the NT. Maybe one day it will have some benefit.

Jeremiah 31:32
כי זאת הברית אשר אכרת את בית ישראל אחרי הימים ההם נאם ה
Because this is the covenant which I will cut the House of Israel after those days declares G-d

נתתי = gave + first person singular perfective suffix = I gave
את = (used to indicate a direct object, no English parallel)
תורתי = Torah + first person singular possesive suffix = my Torah
בקרבם = in + midst + third person plural possesive suffix = in their midst
ועל = and + on
לבם = hearts + third person plural posseive suffix = their hearts
אכתבנה = first person singular imperfective prefix + write + third person singular feminine suffix = I will write it (lit. 'her' because Torah is a feminine word)

I gave my Torah in their midst and on their hearts, I will write it

והייתי להם לאלקים והמה יהיו לי לעם
And I will be to them for a G-d and they will be to me for a nation.

In other words, the new covenant is going to be that the Torah which G-d had already given in our midst, will then become part of our fabric- written on our hearts. For that reason, no man will need to teach his friend about G-d. Not because it will all be thrown out the door altogether.

There will be no change to the Law itself. Only, the same Law that is now external to us, will become internal. Perhaps this is why Jeremiah's prophecy had to be reworded for the Christian Bible.

Totally agree.
 

dance-above

Member
Honestly, I don't know why I'm doing this. I already know that in 4-7 posts, two Christians are going to end up fighting over some completely non-relevant passage in the NT. Maybe one day it will have some benefit.

Jeremiah 31:32
כי זאת הברית אשר אכרת את בית ישראל אחרי הימים ההם נאם ה
Because this is the covenant which I will cut the House of Israel after those days declares G-d

נתתי = gave + first person singular perfective suffix = I gave
את = (used to indicate a direct object, no English parallel)
תורתי = Torah + first person singular possesive suffix = my Torah
בקרבם = in + midst + third person plural possesive suffix = in their midst
ועל = and + on
לבם = hearts + third person plural posseive suffix = their hearts
אכתבנה = first person singular imperfective prefix + write + third person singular feminine suffix = I will write it (lit. 'her' because Torah is a feminine word)

I gave my Torah in their midst and on their hearts, I will write it

והייתי להם לאלקים והמה יהיו לי לעם
And I will be to them for a G-d and they will be to me for a nation.

In other words, the new covenant is going to be that the Torah which G-d had already given in our midst, will then become part of our fabric- written on our hearts. For that reason, no man will need to teach his friend about G-d. Not because it will all be thrown out the door altogether.

There will be no change to the Law itself. Only, the same Law that is now external to us, will become internal. Perhaps this is why Jeremiah's prophecy had to be reworded for the Christian Bible.
I think he was meaning the new Israel. A people of his own. The old mosaic laws are obsolete as far as it concerns the new Jerusalem and the new people of God.
 

CMike

Well-Known Member
I think he was meaning the new Israel. A people of his own. The old mosaic laws are obsolete as far as it concerns the new Jerusalem and the new people of God.
It seems that G-D disagrees.

Deuterenomy 13:1

Don't add nor subtract from the commandments.
 

dance-above

Member
It seems that G-D disagrees.

Deuterenomy 13:1

Don't add nor subtract from the commandments.

13:1
13 [a]If a prophet, or one who foretells by dreams, appears among you and announces to you a sign or wonder, 2 and if the sign or wonder spoken of takes place, and the prophet says, “Let us follow other gods” (gods you have not known) “and let us worship them,” 3 you must not listen to the words of that prophet or dreamer. The Lord your God is testing you to find out whether you love him with all your heart and with all your soul. 4 It is the Lord your God you must follow, and him you must revere. Keep his commands and obey him; serve him and hold fast to him. 5 That prophet or dreamer must be put to death for inciting rebellion against the Lord your God, who brought you out of Egypt and redeemed you from the land of slavery. That prophet or dreamer tried to turn you from the way the Lord your God commanded you to follow. You must purge the evil from among you.
How does this disagree with what I said? I worship God
 

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
I think he was meaning the new Israel. A people of his own. The old mosaic laws are obsolete as far as it concerns the new Jerusalem and the new people of God.

Dear dance,
I think you are comparing a silk purse with a sow's ear. Jeremiah 31:32 is the "Word of God". Your reference to Hebrews 8:13, from an unknown author, canonized by a church established by a Roman emperor, and your referring to an ephemeral "Israel", which is was born in the mind of a self professed apostle and prophet Paul (John 5:31), is not a case that can be made. As far as the "New Jerusalem" that is in reference to Rev 21:2, where "there shall no longer by any death", Paul is dead.
 

CMike

Well-Known Member
13:1
13 [a]If a prophet, or one who foretells by dreams, appears among you and announces to you a sign or wonder, 2 and if the sign or wonder spoken of takes place, and the prophet says, “Let us follow other gods” (gods you have not known) “and let us worship them,” 3 you must not listen to the words of that prophet or dreamer. The Lord your God is testing you to find out whether you love him with all your heart and with all your soul. 4 It is the Lord your God you must follow, and him you must revere. Keep his commands and obey him; serve him and hold fast to him. 5 That prophet or dreamer must be put to death for inciting rebellion against the Lord your God, who brought you out of Egypt and redeemed you from the land of slavery. That prophet or dreamer tried to turn you from the way the Lord your God commanded you to follow. You must purge the evil from among you.
How does this disagree with what I said? I worship God

Deuterenomy 13

1. Everything I command you that you shall be careful to do it. You shall neither add to it, nor subtract from it.
 

dantech

Well-Known Member
13:1
13 [a]If a prophet, or one who foretells by dreams, appears among you and announces to you a sign or wonder, 2 and if the sign or wonder spoken of takes place, and the prophet says, “Let us follow other gods” (gods you have not known) “and let us worship them,” 3 you must not listen to the words of that prophet or dreamer. The Lord your God is testing you to find out whether you love him with all your heart and with all your soul. 4 It is the Lord your God you must follow, and him you must revere. Keep his commands and obey him; serve him and hold fast to him. 5 That prophet or dreamer must be put to death for inciting rebellion against the Lord your God, who brought you out of Egypt and redeemed you from the land of slavery. That prophet or dreamer tried to turn you from the way the Lord your God commanded you to follow. You must purge the evil from among you.
How does this disagree with what I said? I worship God

Is it me, or do these verses seem to be making an exact reference to the Christian Bible's depiction of Jesus?
 

dantech

Well-Known Member
Deuterenomy 13

1. Everything I command you that you shall be careful to do it. You shall neither add to it, nor subtract from it.

CMike, this should be your signature. It'll save you a lot of time since you post this exact verse at least 1-2 times a day.
 

CMike

Well-Known Member
Is it me, or do these verses seem to be making an exact reference to the Christian Bible's depiction of Jesus?
It seems to fit jesus pretty nicely.

Also, rather odd how that verse dissapears in the christian bible.
 
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