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Messianic Judaism Discussions

BlandOatmeal

Active Member
Yes, but if everyone was allowed to call themselves Messianic Jews without having anything close to the standard, that would be like anyone claiming to be Mormon without believing in the Book of Mormon, or something along those lines. Messianic Jews can differ on the details like canon, Paul, Trinity, etc. But it's the JEW part, i.e. the Lawful obedience part which is the bottom denominator.

At what point do we make the distinction between a Messianic Jew and one who is not?
Shermana,

It is indeed the "Jew" part that concerns you. My level of Jewish religious observance is on a par with that of a typical Israeli Jew, and considerably beyond that of a typical American Jew. Though you claim this is important, it cannot be. What matters, is that my mother's mother's FATHER was Jewish, rather than her mother.
 

Shermana

Heretic
Shermana,

It is indeed the "Jew" part that concerns you. My level of Jewish religious observance is on a par with that of a typical Israeli Jew, and considerably beyond that of a typical American Jew. Though you claim this is important, it cannot be. What matters, is that my mother's mother's FATHER was Jewish, rather than her mother.

I most certainly agree that it's the Paternal and not Maternal that determines Jewishness, despite what the Rabbis say. However, I believe this denotes Jewish bloodline, not religion, unlike what the Rabbis say. Many Orthodox Rabbis say that secular Israeli Jews are only Jewish ethnically wise, but they are not members of the "Jewish religion". It's not as cut and dry as you think it is. Nonetheless, I accept that you are a member of the House of Israel in terms of being a member of the bloodline.

So the Jewish RELIGION part in the sense of "Messianic Jew" is nonetheless a very Orthodox-ish concept, even if the idea of obedience to the Law is not central to salvation is included.

So let me rephrase my question to you: What is the difference between "Messianic Jewish" religion and "A born Jew who believes Jesus was Christ". Do you think any "Christian" who happens to be born Jewish is a Messianic Jew? If so, I think you're confused on the very term of "Messianic Jewish" that you seem so bent on wanting an exclusive title for.

Can you find a specific link or website or group that says that Messianic Jewishness can entail not obeying the fullness of the Law?
 

BlandOatmeal

Active Member
I most certainly agree that it's the Paternal and not Maternal that determines Jewishness, despite what the Rabbis say. However, I believe this denotes Jewish bloodline, not religion, unlike what the Rabbis say. Many Orthodox Rabbis say that secular Israeli Jews are only Jewish ethnically wise, but they are not members of the "Jewish religion". It's not as cut and dry as you think it is. Nonetheless, I accept that you are a member of the House of Israel in terms of being a member of the bloodline.

So the Jewish RELIGION part in the sense of "Messianic Jew" is nonetheless a very Orthodox-ish concept, even if the idea of obedience to the Law is not central to salvation is included.

So let me rephrase my question to you: What is the difference between "Messianic Jewish" religion and "A born Jew who believes Jesus was Christ". Do you think any "Christian" who happens to be born Jewish is a Messianic Jew? If so, I think you're confused on the very term of "Messianic Jewish" that you seem so bent on wanting an exclusive title for.

Can you find a specific link or website or group that says that Messianic Jewishness can entail not obeying the fullness of the Law?
Hello again, Shermana

This is indeed not a cut-and-dried matter; and I perceive that your ideas are no more welcome in the rabbinical community than my Weltanschaung.

All right, you are offended at me not because of my bloodlines, but because of my lack of observance. You know, of course, that this very sort of thing divides halachic Jews as well, yet they CALL themselves Jews. I don't see any LOGICAL reason, therefore, not to call myself a "Messianic Jew" in spite of my difference in observance from yours.

Lest we argue ad infinitum on this point, though, I am not the one who first called myself a "Messianic Jew". I made some private posts to RF, explaining my position, and their staff responded that I seemed to fit into this niche. On another forum, after a similar discussion, I was given the label "Non-Trinitarian Messianic". I don't especially like the latter label myself, because I see the term as something of an oxymoron: How, for instance, can someone believe that a man is "God's Anointed" and "God, the Anointer" at the same time? That oxymoron, along with all the others that preceded it, could become fuel for yet another Church Council, if only we had a Roman Emperor to preside over it (sarcasm).

The bottom line is that I did not choose these labels. They are, as the French say, "what I am called." (que l'on m'appelle)

God bless and keep you.

Shalom shalom ;)

PS. I consider myself "Jewish", in a non-halachic but nevertheless legitimate sense, because I am Jesus' brother and have been adopted by God into his family. Jesus and I don't just eat together; he gets into my dreams and knows my every thought. If you will, I'm becoming "assimilated" into him: As he hangs on the cross (which he does eternally, before the God of the Living), I spend time in his mind, thinking about what he's going through. That's a pretty close relationship.
 
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Shermana

Heretic
That still does not answer my question.

What is the difference between a Messianic Jew and a born-Jew who believes in Jesus as the Messiah? Are they the same? Are converts to Christianity who are born Jewish all "Messianic Jews" regardless of their belief?

I don't care if someone on another forum called you a Messianic, I want to know what YOU think, especially since you're so into the concept of such labels.
 

BlandOatmeal

Active Member
That still does not answer my question.

What is the difference between a Messianic Jew and a born-Jew who believes in Jesus as the Messiah? Are they the same? Are converts to Christianity who are born Jewish all "Messianic Jews" regardless of their belief?

I don't care if someone on another forum called you a Messianic, I want to know what YOU think, especially since you're so into the concept of such labels.
You have me completely wrong, Shermana. I am DEFINITELY not "into" labels. I'm into being able to talk in a meaningful way here with people who won't reflexively dismiss me out of hand and attack me. You, for all the differences between you and me, are an esteemed member of this group; so I needed to establish an identity definition that would include both of us.

To answer your questions, which are important to you:

1. Q: What is the difference between a Messianic Jew and a born-Jew who believes in Jesus as the Messiah?

A: The latter included Moishe Rosen, the Baptist minister who started "Jews for Jesus" as a Baptist outreach to Jews. They are Trinitarians; you and I are not. Whatever they call themselves, I do not want to discuss doctrine with them here.

2. Q: Are they the same?

A: They think they are, and you think they aren't. I don't care, one way or another. I'm interested in who people ARE, not what they call themselves. Call themselves what they will, they cannot post on this thread: because they are, in fact, Trinitarians.

3. Q: Are converts to Christianity who are born Jewish all "Messianic Jews" regardless of their belief?

A: Not according to my understanding -- not if they are converts to "Christianity", which means "Trinitarian". By the way, I think you and others are mis-using the term "convert", if you think you are doing it in the BIBLICAL sense. As a modern buzzword, it's fine in this context: You are talking about people joining religious groups, and I think I know what you mean. When the word "convert" appears in the KJV Bible, however, it means something quite different. The term is used in Pss 51, Isa 60, Matt 13,18, Mark 4, Luke 22, John 12, Acts 3, 28. It NEVER refers to joining a religious group.

Keep it up, Shermana. I think you're dealing with an important issue; because the matters you are addressing affected Jesus and the early church -- which leads me to pose to you my one question:

Q: Would you consider Jesus to be a Messianic Jew?

Please answer that. It's not a rhetorical question. BTW. I see that you are still offline, so I'll add this. You asked,

Q: Can you find a specific link or website or group that says that Messianic Jewishness can entail not obeying the fullness of the Law?

I don't know of a single "Messianic" website, now that you mention it. I may have quoted religious websites that I stumbled upon in reading the news, or answering people on the CF and RF blogs; but I don't recall ever looking them up for personal study. I look up scriptures online, in just about every translation and in original languages. Sometimes I stumble over a commentary.

Did you ever consider the fact, that most of my ancestors possessed few books other than the Bible? Daniel Boone carried a Bible with him and a book of Shakespeare's works. These were also the principal sources for Abraham Lincoln. Those were men of character, who made the US a great country. I look up to people like that, and try to emulate them. Jesus reached out to people like me, as well as to the frum; and he called them "brothers".

The answer to your question is "No, I cannot; and I haven't tried to."
 
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BlandOatmeal

Active Member
Carryover from DIR conversation with Shermana:

John 20:25 to end.

[24] But Thomas, one of the twelve, called Didymus, was not with them when Jesus came.
[25] The other disciples therefore said unto him, We have seen the Lord. But he said unto them, Except I shall see in his hands the print of the nails, and put my finger into the print of the nails, and thrust my hand into his side, I will not believe.
[26] And after eight days again his disciples were within, and Thomas with them: then came Jesus, the doors being shut, and stood in the midst, and said, Peace be unto you.
[27] Then saith he to Thomas, reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.
[28] And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.
[29] Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.
[30] And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book:
[31] But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.

You believe this passage does not belong in John -- that it was added by later editors? Can you deal with this matter in small bits, which I am able to digest? It sounds like an interesting topic.
 

Shermana

Heretic
I did not mean to attack you, I meant to point out that in our previous discussion, you had an issue with the term "Messianic Jew" and you said I am not one or something, even though I said it's more about the specific way the label is used and how the term has been highjacked by Evangelicals and I prefer not to use the term as a specific way of describing my belief, even though I introduce myself as one to make it easier to explain to people what my beliefs are in that it is a term most people would be able to get the foundation of. That is why I said you are so into the concept of such labels. In this regard, I am both a Messianic Jew and not a "Messianic Jew". I am a "Messianic Jew" in the general concept of the idea itself, I am not a "Messianic Jew" in how the term is most commonly understood in its specific usage as its mostly represented.

I will go further into detail on why the ending of John seems a bit...out of touch with the rest of the Gospels and John itself in a little bit.
 

BlandOatmeal

Active Member
I did not mean to attack you, I meant to point out that in our previous discussion, you had an issue with the term "Messianic Jew" and you said I am not one or something, even though I said it's more about the specific way the label is used and how the term has been highjacked by Evangelicals and I prefer not to use the term as a specific way of describing my belief, even though I introduce myself as one to make it easier to explain to people what my beliefs are in that it is a term most people would be able to get the foundation of. That is why I said you are so into the concept of such labels. In this regard, I am both a Messianic Jew and not a "Messianic Jew". I am a "Messianic Jew" in the general concept of the idea itself, I am not a "Messianic Jew" in how the term is most commonly understood in its specific usage as its mostly represented.

I will go further into detail on why the ending of John seems a bit...out of touch with the rest of the Gospels and John itself in a little bit.
Hi, Shermana

According to one website, only eleven events are common to all four gospels:

"1) Baptism of John: Mt. 3:1-17; Mk. 1:1-11; Lk. 3:1-22; Jn. 1:15-34.
2) Feeding of 5000: Mt. 14:13-21; Mk. 6:30-44; Lk. 9:10-17; Jn. 6:1-15.
3) Peter's Profession: Mt. 16:13-19; Mk. 8:27-29; Lk. 9:18-20; Jn. 6:66-71.
4) Anointing by Mary: Mt. 26:6-13; Mk. 14:3-9; Lk. 7:36-50; Jn. 12:1-11.
5) Triumphal Entry: Mt. 21:1-11; Mk. 11:1-10; Lk. 19:29-44; Jn. 12:12-19.
6) Last Supper: Mt. 26:17-30; Mk. 14:12-26; Lk. 22:7-23; Jn. 13:1-35.
7) Gethsemane: Mt. 26:36-56; Mk. 14:32-52 Lk. 22:40-53; Jn. 18:1.
8) The Trials: Mt. 26:57-27:31; Mk. 14:43-15:20; Lk. 22:47-23:37; Jn. 18:2-19:3.
9) The Crucifixion: Mt. 27:32-56; Mk. 15:21-41; Lk. 23:26-56; Jn. 19:1-37.
10) His Burial: Mt. 27:57-28:15; Mk. 15:42-47; Lk. 23:50-56; Jn. 19:38-42.
11) The Resurrection: Mt. 28:1-10; Mk. 16:1-11; Lk. 24:1-12; Jn. 20:1-18."

-- http://skipslighthouse.blogspot.com/2012/07/eleven-events-in-all-four-gospels.html

The "Doubting Thomas" story is unique to John, but I see nothing surprising in this. I have two books concerning alterations and misinterpretations of the Bible, and neither suggests that the final verses of John were not in the original manuscript. One of those books is by a Jehovah's Witness, who would certainly mention any suspicion concerning their authenticity, but he does not. Thomas's "My lord and my god" comment, of course, is often cited by Trinitarians as "proof" of their doctrine. Also,

Matt 28
[16] Then the eleven disciples went away into Galilee, into a mountain where Jesus had appointed them.
[17] And when they saw him, they worshipped him: but some doubted.

speaks not only of disciples doubting him after his resurrection, but also worshipping him. That makes the passage in John not seem so out of place.
 
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BlandOatmeal

Active Member
Carryover from Messianic Judaism DIR:
For this reason therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was breaking the Sabbath - john 5-18

Note, it doesnt say "accused of"... And we know that he didn't break the sabbath.

I have no problem believing that he said "let he who is without sin cast the first stone" - who is without sin that will rain down stones upon the unrepentant wicked in the end times?

She deserved death but he had compassion on her on the condition that she doesn't sin again, a full 180 from Paul's lie of "all sins are nailed to the cross", we care forgiven through our desire to turn away from sin and to obey the laws, failure to life by the HaKodesh law results in death rather than one mistake, if I've understood correctly.

I'm intrigued as to why you appear to believe the complete opposite to me there, would you mind explaining your POV? Thanks :)

Danny
I hope you find your way here, Danny.

John 5
[1] After this there was a feast of the Jews; and Jesus went up to Jerusalem.
[2] Now there is at Jerusalem by the sheep market a pool, which is called in the Hebrew tongue Bethesda, having five porches.
[3] In these lay a great multitude of impotent folk, of blind, halt, withered, waiting for the moving of the water.
[4] For an angel went down at a certain season into the pool, and troubled the water: whosoever then first after the troubling of the water stepped in was made whole of whatsoever disease he had.
[5] And a certain man was there, which had an infirmity thirty and eight years.
[6] When Jesus saw him lie, and knew that he had been now a long time in that case, he saith unto him, Wilt thou be made whole?
[7] The impotent man answered him, Sir, I have no man, when the water is troubled, to put me into the pool: but while I am coming, another steppeth down before me.
[8] Jesus saith unto him, Rise, take up thy bed, and walk.
[9] And immediately the man was made whole, and took up his bed, and walked: and on the same day was the sabbath.
[10] The Jews therefore said unto him that was cured, It is the sabbath day: it is not lawful for thee to carry thy bed.
[11] He answered them, He that made me whole, the same said unto me, Take up thy bed, and walk.
[12] Then asked they him, What man is that which said unto thee, Take up thy bed, and walk?
[13] And he that was healed wist not who it was: for Jesus had conveyed himself away, a multitude being in that place.
[14] Afterward Jesus findeth him in the temple, and said unto him, Behold, thou art made whole: sin no more, lest a worse thing come unto thee.
[15] The man departed, and told the Jews that it was Jesus, which had made him whole.
[16] And therefore did the Jews persecute Jesus, and sought to slay him, because he had done these things on the sabbath day.
[17] But Jesus answered them, My Father worketh hitherto, and I work.
[18] Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.

The passage is long, but I had to post it all in order to show the context.

"Making himself equal with God" put aside (That's another matter altogether), Jesus did indeed heal on the Sabbath -- in John's eyes, certainly, for he said, "not only had broken the Sabbath..."; but Jesus himself did not contradict them, for he said, "My Father worketh hitherto, and I work"

In the modern, non-Jewish way of thinking, Jesus did no work; but in the Jewish halachic sense, he did! Think about an orator: His "work" consists of speaking. Can he orate on the Sabbath? Here the argument begins; and since I'm on the "Messianic" end much more than the "Jewish" end of things, I'll defer on these matters to the likes of Rabbi Shermana. ;)

Concerning John 5:18, there are some who question whether that passage was in the original manuscript.

John 8
[2] And early in the morning he came again into the temple, and all the people came unto him; and he sat down, and taught them.
[3] And the scribes and Pharisees brought unto him a woman taken in adultery; and when they had set her in the midst,
[4] They say unto him, Master, this woman was taken in adultery, in the very act.
[5] Now Moses in the law commanded us, that such should be stoned: but what sayest thou?
[6] This they said, tempting him, that they might have to accuse him. But Jesus stooped down, and with his finger wrote on the ground, as though he heard them not.
[7] So when they continued asking him, he lifted up himself, and said unto them, He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her.
[8] And again he stooped down, and wrote on the ground.
[9] And they which heard it, being convicted by their own conscience, went out one by one, beginning at the eldest, even unto the last: and Jesus was left alone, and the woman standing in the midst.
[10] When Jesus had lifted up himself, and saw none but the woman, he said unto her, Woman, where are those thine accusers? hath no man condemned thee?
[11] She said, No man, Lord. And Jesus said unto her, Neither do I condemn thee: go, and sin no more.

The NIV footnote says:

"[The earliest manuscripts and many other ancient witnesses do not have John 7:53—8:11. A few manuscripts include these verses, wholly or in part, after John 7:36, John 21:25, Luke 21:38 or Luke 24:53.]"

Torah stipulates that the offended party should cast the first stone. Since none of the woman's accusers was willing to do so, that left only Jesus to accuse her; but two witnesses were required to put her to death. Jesus could not have been accused of breaking the law in this case, according to my very limited understanding.

The Jewish authorities were not able to find two witnesses to agree in their accusations against Jesus, and finally agreed that he had committed "blasphemy" among them (Again, this is a topic unto itself). Jews of today, on the other hand, find fault with Jesus not so much with what he DID, but with what he purportedly TAUGHT -- namely, that eating of treif (unclean foods) was permissible, and perhaps other things.

I have my own, perhaps wrong, view on these matters; but I want to hear from Shermana or some others first, before weighing in.
 

BlandOatmeal

Active Member
From the DIR:
To whoever wrote they don't accept the book of john...

Illiterate john wrote revelation in poor Greek, yet all yochanine writings are written to a scholarly level.

It also looks like it is a combination if two or more documents, containing the core story of the messiah and a few things that he probably did say (let he who is without sin cast the first stone) mixed with the rebel that the Pharisees wanted him to be (had he broken the sabbath or lied he wouldn't be the messiah or sinless yet john has him do both, while the Synoptics show him correct the sabbath), it also shows him arrogant, fearless, unsure of whether he is man or god in human form (he still mainly refers to himself as the sin and as a human but tell that to a Trinitarian) and seems to push this mithraic Hellenic roman idol persona of faith and love being ALL that matters, as if the laws don't exist.

Matthew and Mark (and most of Luke - which, like John, is also inaccurate to an extent) show that faith is just the mustard seed, brilliant to have, but if not watered and nurtured, amounts to nothing, and that adherence to the law and love for the Father are the tree and the fruit.

Both nonmessianic Jews and lawless paulian Christians are like the fig tree - they have the foundation of a tree, and the leaves that tell someone that there should be fruit upon this tree, but without the sacrifice of the messiah the Jews will be fruitless, and the Christians,without the law, are incapable of producing fruit.
Messianic,

You seem to have views similar to Shermana, so I am out-gunned here.

For starters, I accept the canonical NT books, all of them -- including the writings of Paul. You said that Luke was "inaccurate to an extent". If one were to discard the Pauline letters, Luke would have to have been EXTREMELY inaccurate; for he was Paul's closest companion and echoed most of what Paul said.

Here is a passage from Luke's "Acts":

Acts 15
[22] Then pleased it the apostles and elders, with the whole church, to send chosen men of their own company to Antioch with Paul and Barnabas; namely, Judas surnamed Barsabas, and Silas, chief men among the brethren:
[23] And they wrote letters by them after this manner; The apostles and elders and brethren send greeting unto the brethren which are of the Gentiles in Antioch and Syria and Cilicia:
[24] Forasmuch as we have heard, that certain which went out from us have troubled you with words, subverting your souls, saying, Ye must be circumcised, and keep the law: to whom we gave no such commandment:
[25] It seemed good unto us, being assembled with one accord, to send chosen men unto you with our beloved Barnabas and Paul,
[26] Men that have hazarded their lives for the name of our Lord Jesus Christ.
[27] We have sent therefore Judas and Silas, who shall also tell you the same things by mouth.
[28] For it seemed good to the Holy Ghost, and to us, to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things;
[29] That ye abstain from meats offered to idols, and from blood, and from things strangled, and from fornication: from which if ye keep yourselves, ye shall do well. Fare ye well.

The whole church in Jerusalem agreed

"to lay upon you [the brethren which are of the Gentiles] no greater burden "

The elders called the non-Jewish disciples "brethren", yet laid no greater burden upon them than that expected of Gentiles. What's more, James described those Gentile believers as members of Israel:

Jas 1
[1] James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting.

and Peter described them as "elect".

1 Peter 1
[1] Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia,
[2] Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.

Please explain your understanding of this.
 
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BlandOatmeal

Active Member
I posted the following in a DIR, in response to a query. I would like some serious discussion of this matter, something which can only happen in this forum.

I am interested in Ezekiel 38-39, because it talks about events that appear to be close at hand. For instance, the following has not happened at any time between 70 AD and 1948:

Ezekiel 38
[8] After many days thou shalt be visited: in the latter years thou shalt come into the land that is brought back from the sword, and is gathered out of many people, against the mountains of Israel, which have been always waste: but it is brought forth out of the nations, and they shall dwell safely all of them.

The above did apply to the period from 538 BC to 70 AD; but the rest of the prophecy did not appear to apply then, especially the coalition of Persia, Sudan, Libya and "Magog" (probably Turkey) with MAGOG IN THE LEAD. Magog, in Ezekiel's time, was probably Anatolia, which was in "the far north" of Israel; and "Gog" was probably "Gugu" aka "Gyges", the founder of the ruler of the house of Gyges in the western Anatolian country of Lydia. The particular ruler of Lydia in those days was Croessus, purported to have been the richest man in the world. Herodotus details how Croessus foolishly allowed himself to be conquered by the Iranians, then joined himself to them as one of their generals.

The Persian Empire that resulted did stretch from the borders of Sudan and Libya, all the way to Pakistan and Central Asia; but they did not ATTACK an Israeli nation "which have been always waste: but it is brought forth out of the nations". Rather, it was this same Persian Empire that RETURNED Israel to its desolate homeland, to re-inhabit it. Israel then lived in peace under the Persians, until they were conquered by Alexander in 332 BC. Alexander came from Macedonia, in SE Europe, and peacefully occupied Jerusalem. He died suddenly, and was succeeded in Israel by the the descendants of Ptolemey (whose empire was centered in Egypt) and Seleucis (who ruled from Antioch, in the southernmost part of Turkey).

There was a notorious Seleucid named Antiochus Epiphanes, who conquered Jerusalem in 167 BC. He was the one who set up the "Abomination of Desolation" prophesied by Daniel. Jesus referred to this "abomination" in his prophecy of end-times (post-70 AD) events:

Matt 24
[15] When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand:)
[16] Then let them which be in Judaea flee into the mountains:
[17] Let him which is on the housetop not come down to take any thing out of his house:
[18] Neither let him which is in the field return back to take his clothes.
[19] And woe unto them that are with child, and to them that give suck in those days!
[20] But pray ye that your flight be not in the winter, neither on the sabbath day:
[21] For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.
[22] And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect's sake those days shall be shortened.

Antiochus had an empire that, on paper, stretched as far as India:

800px-Asia_Minor_188_BCE.jpg


He COULD have been construed prophetically as the successor of Gyges, seeing that he did come from the far north. His attack on Jerusalem came AFTER he had been forced by the Romans to quit Egypt (and hence, any claim to Libya and Sudan); but he may have aquired some Libyan and Sudanese auxiliaries by that time. The Jewish uprising against Seleucid oppression happened some time AFTER Antiochus Epiphanes' death, when the Maccabes, a Jewish priestly line, rose up to rule in Jerusalem. Their rule ended with the ascension of Herod the Great who ruled as a client of the Romans.

If Ezekiel 38-39 did not refer to the times we live in, then, it may have referred to the time of the Maccabes, from 164 BC to 63 BC. I'll pass the ball to you, to critique that possibility.
 

BlandOatmeal

Active Member
Tell me what you think of this:

Friday, November 29, 2013
A Satmar Chasid and the Pope
Posted by Harry Maryles

pope.jpg


"...Pope Francis & the Chief Rabbi of Rome, Riccardo Di Segni
In a totally unrelated story, Rabbi Yitzchak Adlerstein has a wonderful post at Cross Currents about the current Pope. In it he sings the praises of that man and of how Catholicism has evolved in our day. There was a time not that long ago (about 50 or so years ago in fact) that Catholic Church doctrines did not recognize the Judaism as a valid religion, they considered us as having broken our covenant with God and no longer deserving to be considered God’s chosen people. And they blamed our ancestors for the crucifixion of Jesus and that we – their descendants - carried the burden of that ‘sin’.

They no longer believe that. Pope John the 23rd began the process of changing that attitude into one of acceptance of our validity - blameless for the crucifixion. They now acknowledge that we have retained our covenant with God and consider us an older brother religion. Pope Paul fulfilled his predecessor’s wishes in Vatican II. It is now Church doctrine. And it seems as though with every succeeding Pope since then, the relationship has improved..."

-- Emes Ve-Emunah: A Satmar Chasid and the Pope
 

BlandOatmeal

Active Member
This is just a keep-alive page. I think it's rather amazing, that the Pope and a Satmar rabbi can embrace one another, while I can't find two "Messianics" to talk with one another.

pope.jpg


Jesus was the perfect Messianic Jew, the archetype. If one were to draw a difference between him and the two fellows in the photo above, one might consider:

  1. the opulent surroundings. Most of Jesus' teachings took place outdoors, with dirt floors, sky ceilings and rock furniture.
  2. the yarmulkes (head coverings). I doubt that Jesus wore one like that
  3. the fancy get-ups
That's all I can tell, from a picture. Between the Pope and the Jew, the Pope was probably the more Zionist of the two -- the Satmars don't like Israel at all.

 

CMike

Well-Known Member
It's very simple...

Jesus either fulfilled the messianic prophesies in the Tanach or he didn't.

The messianic prophesies are in Michah 4:3 and Ezekiel 37. They are:

World Peace
All the jews will come to Israel
All the jews will stay in Israel
A descedent of David (tribal lineage comes solely through the biological father)
The temple in jerusalem will be rebuilt and stand forever.
All nations will worship one G-D

None of these things. Therefore, no messiah yet.

The messiah himself will be only a mortal man.

Moses has been called in the Torah the greatest of all the prophets, so the messiah will be no greater than Moses.
 

Avi1001

reform Jew humanist liberal feminist entrepreneur
This thread is for anyone who

1. believes that Jesus is the or a "Messiah", whatever that means to you
2. does not believe that Jesus is God
3. believes at least PART of the Old Testament and PART of the New Testament (I'm not fussy -- I'll take what I can get).

I essentially want to discuss the Bible, and to discuss the world from a Bible viewpoint, without snide remarks from atheists nor pontifications from Trinitarians. I like hearing from Jews, as long as they don't come just to bad-mouth the New Testament. Just stretch your understanding of "messiah" enough, to say you think Jesus was being honest.

Hi guys, new to this thread, but trying to catch up.

You said you wanted to hear from Jewish posters, but as some early posters mentioned, isn't:

...."Just stretch your understanding of "messiah" enough, to say you think Jesus was being honest",....

a non-starter from a Jewish perspective ?
 
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