A
angellous_evangellous
Guest
Christians sometimes get a little confused concerning the difference between their interpretation of Scripture (how they read it) and Scripture itself (the unread text).
By way of example:
This is the first time I've ever seen a Christian equate a very late confession to Scripture.
Some questions: if it is Scripture, where is it in the canon and why was it written in 1646 rather than in the first and second centuries like the rest of the NT?
Does anyone think that the 1646 Westminster Confession of Faith is "the Word of God written?"
By way of example:
Sad. . .so sad. . .
You traffic in a lot of conjecture, in lieu of factual proof. . .the 1646 Westminster Confession of Faith of orthodox Reformed theology is pure Scripture.
If the Confession is insignificant, useless, dead and worthless, then so is Scripture.
Sad. . .so sad. . .you think normative is your lifetime. . .well, Christianity has been around a tad longer than that. . .your lifetime is not its measure.
This is the first time I've ever seen a Christian equate a very late confession to Scripture.
Some questions: if it is Scripture, where is it in the canon and why was it written in 1646 rather than in the first and second centuries like the rest of the NT?
Does anyone think that the 1646 Westminster Confession of Faith is "the Word of God written?"