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Let's Talk About the Holy Spirit

savagewind

Veteran Member
Premium Member
There are no false prophesies, just mistakes in the timing of one prophesy which has still to see the final parts of its fulfillment. (Matthew 24:36-39)
We are doing the same work that Noah did before God brought the flood. The same work that Jesus and his apostles did before the fall of Jerusalem in 70CE. (Matthew 10:11-15; Luke 21:20-22) It contains a warning...but who is listening?
Maybe your definition of false is different than most.

Can you say, "Beth-Sarim"? http://www.jwfacts.com/watchtower/bethsarim.php

JWs say that the prophets of Jehovah will never go to heaven. So a house was built for them. When? 1929.

The reason why the prophets of Jehovah will never go to heaven is because the governing body of Jehovah's Witnesses prophesy that they died before Jesus made the way for humans to get there, which might be true, but that means Jehovah may not go beyond the understanding of the governing body of Jehovah's Witnesses, which seems to be kind-a foolish. Don't you think?

They are fleshly and if you have a minute, I will tell you why.

Jesus says that he who does the will of The Father is his brother, sister, mother. He says those who do good to the least of Jesus' brothers, do good to him.
Who today does the will of Jehovah better than those prophets of Jehovah in the OT? They are dead. Yes, but it is written that they live to Jehovah still. That is spiritual. To be denying those spiritual men and woman entry into heaven because they died before the man Jesus did is PHYSICAL thinking.
 

savagewind

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Is Beth-Sarim a made up story or did Jehovah's Witnesses really commission a home for resurrected nobles?

Isn't building a house for someone the same as expecting them?

Is expecting them the same as saying Jehovah will resurrect them?

Is saying Jehovah will resurrect them a prophecy?
 

Deeje

Avid Bible Student
Premium Member
At the time, it was believed that faithful men of old times, such as Abraham, Joseph, and David, would be resurrected before the end of this system of things and would serve as “princes in all the earth,” in fulfillment of Psalm 45:16. This view was adjusted in 1950, when further study of the Scriptures indicated that those earthly forefathers of Jesus Christ would be resurrected after Armageddon. Since the house that was built for them was here on earth, it was a testament to our belief in an earthly resurrection for such ones.

Increased understanding leads us to clarify our views, rather than stick with something that proves to be a misunderstanding. I have no problem with that.
 

ashkat1`

Member
Well, you see I never was one to be afraid of the "Holy Ghost" because I never believed that there was such a thing. The Bible does not teach that God's spirit is a "ghost" in the way Christendom has portrayed it. God's spirit is the administration of his awesome power, directed wherever it is needed to fulfill whatever the divine will directs.

Numbers 11:16-17:
"Then the Lord said to Moses, “Gather for me seventy men of the elders of Israel, whom you know to be the elders of the people and officers over them, and bring them to the tent of meeting, and let them take their stand there with you. 17 And I will come down and talk with you there. And I will take some of the Spirit that is on you and put it on them, and they shall bear the burden of the people with you, so that you may not bear it yourself alone." (ESV)

If God was going to take some of the spirit that was on Moses and divide it up between the 70 men that he appointed as assistants, this is certainly not talking about a person, is it?

I don't have to tell you what "pneuma" means in Greek. The Hebrew equivalent, ruʹach (spirit) is believed to come from a root having the same meaning. Ruʹach and pneuʹma, then, basically mean “breath”. All the meanings of these words have something in common: They all refer to that which is invisible to human sight and which gives evidence of force in motion. Such invisible force is capable of producing visible effects.

God used his spirit in creation and in Noah's time with the global deluge, and in leading Israel out of Egypt with a pillar of cloud by day and a pillar of fire at night. And as noted above, he gave his spirit to Moses so as to perform supernatural feats and to lead his people out of slavery. When the burden proved too much, God withdrew some of his spirit from Moses and divided it between 70 others. There is no "ghost" (derived from the German word "geist", meaning "spirit".)



Sorry but the name of YHWH (Yahweh, Jehovah) was always associated with God's people. Taunting the name of their God was something their enemies did, just as God's prophets taunted their false gods. (1 Kings 18:18-40)
"So they took the young bull that was given to them, prepared it, and kept calling on the name of Baʹal from morning until noon, saying: “O Baʹal, answer us!” But there was no voice and no one answering. They kept limping around the altar that they had made. 27 About noon E·liʹjah began to mock them and say: “Call out at the top of your voice! After all, he is a god! Perhaps he is deep in thought or he has gone to relieve himself. Or maybe he is asleep and someone needs to wake him up!”

1 Samuel 17:45:
“You are coming against me with sword and spear and javelin, but I am coming against you in the name of Jehovah of armies, the God of the battle line of Israel, whom you have taunted."

Micah 4:5:
"For all the peoples will walk, each in the name of its god,
But we will walk in the name of Jehovah our God forever and ever."


There was no hiding Jehovah's name from their enemies....not with the Israel of the Bible.



Deserved criticism of Israel's behaviors is something the Bible is full of.....is the Bible anti-Semitic? Was Jesus anti-Semitic when he foretold woe for the Pharisees, so that they would not flee from "the judgment of Gehenna"?
I said they had "a bad track record"....was I saying something that was untrue? I am no more anti-Semitic than Jesus was. (Matthew 23:37-39) Telling the truth is not anti-Semitic.



If you refer to my previous posts you will see an explanation for why the original church became apostate; the splits came later. The weakened church merged with pagan Roman sun worship at the command of Emperor Constantine who created his "universal" (Catholic) Church in order to unite his divided empire, not because he wanted to make his empire Christian. The church that emerged from that fusion was not Christian in its beliefs or its conduct. It held tyrannical power for many centuries until the Reformation broke Christianity up into even more disunited fragments.If Jesus returned tomorrow, who would he recognize as his own? (Matthew 7:21-23)



And therein lies the problem. I did not attack anyone, I merely brought out that I accept nothing written after the death of the apostles as reliable truth. I do not accept the dogma of the church fathers. I reject the teachings of Christendom, outright. She is a mirror image of Judaism.....led into apostasy by the traditions of men.



http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2001283

http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2009492#h=5
 

savagewind

Veteran Member
Premium Member
At the time, it was believed that faithful men of old times, such as Abraham, Joseph, and David, would be resurrected before the end of this system of things and would serve as “princes in all the earth,” in fulfillment of Psalm 45:16. This view was adjusted in 1950, when further study of the Scriptures indicated that those earthly forefathers of Jesus Christ would be resurrected after Armageddon. Since the house that was built for them was here on earth, it was a testament to our belief in an earthly resurrection for such ones.

Increased understanding leads us to clarify our views, rather than stick with something that proves to be a misunderstanding. I have no problem with that.
I think the point is that they DO prophesy falsely. If that is OK with you, fine.
 

Deeje

Avid Bible Student
Premium Member
This is the second time there has been a post with no comment ashkat1...is there a problem?
 

ashkat1`

Member
Well, you see I never was one to be afraid of the "Holy Ghost" because I never believed that there was such a thing. The Bible does not teach that God's spirit is a "ghost" in the way Christendom has portrayed it. God's spirit is the administration of his awesome power, directed wherever it is needed to fulfill whatever the divine will directs.

Numbers 11:16-17:
"Then the Lord said to Moses, “Gather for me seventy men of the elders of Israel, whom you know to be the elders of the people and officers over them, and bring them to the tent of meeting, and let them take their stand there with you. 17 And I will come down and talk with you there. And I will take some of the Spirit that is on you and put it on them, and they shall bear the burden of the people with you, so that you may not bear it yourself alone." (ESV)

If God was going to take some of the spirit that was on Moses and divide it up between the 70 men that he appointed as assistants, this is certainly not talking about a person, is it?

I don't have to tell you what "pneuma" means in Greek. The Hebrew equivalent, ruʹach (spirit) is believed to come from a root having the same meaning. Ruʹach and pneuʹma, then, basically mean “breath”. All the meanings of these words have something in common: They all refer to that which is invisible to human sight and which gives evidence of force in motion. Such invisible force is capable of producing visible effects.

God used his spirit in creation and in Noah's time with the global deluge, and in leading Israel out of Egypt with a pillar of cloud by day and a pillar of fire at night. And as noted above, he gave his spirit to Moses so as to perform supernatural feats and to lead his people out of slavery. When the burden proved too much, God withdrew some of his spirit from Moses and divided it between 70 others. There is no "ghost" (derived from the German word "geist", meaning "spirit".)



Sorry but the name of YHWH (Yahweh, Jehovah) was always associated with God's people. Taunting the name of their God was something their enemies did, just as God's prophets taunted their false gods. (1 Kings 18:18-40)
"So they took the young bull that was given to them, prepared it, and kept calling on the name of Baʹal from morning until noon, saying: “O Baʹal, answer us!” But there was no voice and no one answering. They kept limping around the altar that they had made. 27 About noon E·liʹjah began to mock them and say: “Call out at the top of your voice! After all, he is a god! Perhaps he is deep in thought or he has gone to relieve himself. Or maybe he is asleep and someone needs to wake him up!”

1 Samuel 17:45:
“You are coming against me with sword and spear and javelin, but I am coming against you in the name of Jehovah of armies, the God of the battle line of Israel, whom you have taunted."

Micah 4:5:
"For all the peoples will walk, each in the name of its god,
But we will walk in the name of Jehovah our God forever and ever."


There was no hiding Jehovah's name from their enemies....not with the Israel of the Bible.



Deserved criticism of Israel's behaviors is something the Bible is full of.....is the Bible anti-Semitic? Was Jesus anti-Semitic when he foretold woe for the Pharisees, so that they would not flee from "the judgment of Gehenna"?
I said they had "a bad track record"....was I saying something that was untrue? I am no more anti-Semitic than Jesus was. (Matthew 23:37-39) Telling the truth is not anti-Semitic.



If you refer to my previous posts you will see an explanation for why the original church became apostate; the splits came later. The weakened church merged with pagan Roman sun worship at the command of Emperor Constantine who created his "universal" (Catholic) Church in order to unite his divided empire, not because he wanted to make his empire Christian. The church that emerged from that fusion was not Christian in its beliefs or its conduct. It held tyrannical power for many centuries until the Reformation broke Christianity up into even more disunited fragments.If Jesus returned tomorrow, who would he recognize as his own? (Matthew 7:21-23)



And therein lies the problem. I did not attack anyone, I merely brought out that I accept nothing written after the death of the apostles as reliable truth. I do not accept the dogma of the church fathers. I reject the teachings of Christendom, outright. She is a mirror image of Judaism.....led into apostasy by the traditions of men.



http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2001283

http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2009492#h=5

How is your concept of the Spirit any different from that found in many Christian circles? You view the Spirit as some sort of impersonal, alien power, just as many Christians do, and that's plenty scary for many people.
Research shows there was no original, unified church that later split. The NT itself makes clear there was much divisiveness among the early Christians. Paul, in I Cor., chapter I, laments that they are tearing Christ to pieces. He also has a feud going on with the Judaizers, such as the Jerusalem cult and Peter. When Paul write on the gifts of teh Spirit, it is clearly in the context of addressing all sorts of back-biting, in-fighting, jealously, and one-upmanship that has been going on over these gifts.

If you are not going to accept anything written after the death of the apostles, you are dumping major portions of the NT canon. Right? I mean, the Gospel of John was written between 95-100 AD. I doubt of any of the apostles lived that long. The Book of Revelations, same thing, written probably around 95-100 AD. The Pastorals are probably not genuine Paulines and written around 120. Corinthians represents a synthesis of fragments from earlier letters of Paul. Given that these earlier letters had to get lost or get destroyed in part and then the fragments reassembled, considerable time elapsed and they sere probably put together in their current form after the death of Paul. Also, you are gong to dump Acts, right? As the Book of Acts was written after the death of Paul. Of course, you are dropping the Johannie Comma and the ending of Mark. Right?
I am wondering what your concept of teh canon is. I ask because there was no canon in place until long after the death of the apostles.
You say you reject Christendom right across the board, but you have yet to make a case. Could you, for example take up a major source from the Apostolic Period, say, Tertullian, and show me how you feel he blew it?
 

ashkat1`

Member
This is the second time there has been a post with no comment ashkat1...is there a problem?
Yes, I have a quirky computer. Sorry. As a P.S. to my previous post, I would add that Mark, the earliest gospel, was written around 70 AD, with Matthew and Luke coming later. Given the life-span of persons at the time, Mark was probably written after the death of the apostles, aw well as Luke and Matthew. If you won't accept anything written after the death of the apostles, you will have to dump Mark, Matthew, and Luke.
 

Deeje

Avid Bible Student
Premium Member
How is your concept of the Spirit any different from that found in many Christian circles? You view the Spirit as some sort of impersonal, alien power, just as many Christians do, and that's plenty scary for many people.

God's power is only scary to those who are not in his favor. Those who belong to Jehovah have nothing to fear...the holy spirit is a comforter, a helper, a counselor and a "power" beyond our own so that we can endure trials that inevitably come.
2 Cor 4:7-9
"But we have this treasure in earthen vessels, so that the surpassing greatness of the power will be of God and not from ourselves; 8 we are afflicted in every way, but not crushed; perplexed, but not despairing; 9 persecuted, but not forsaken; struck down, but not destroyed." (NASB)

Research shows there was no original, unified church that later split. The NT itself makes clear there was much divisiveness among the early Christians. Paul, in I Cor., chapter I, laments that they are tearing Christ to pieces. He also has a feud going on with the Judaizers, such as the Jerusalem cult and Peter. When Paul write on the gifts of teh Spirit, it is clearly in the context of addressing all sorts of back-biting, in-fighting, jealously, and one-upmanship that has been going on over these gifts. I mean, the Gospel of John was written between 95-100 AD. I doubt of any of the apostles lived that long. The Book of Revelations, same thing, written probably around 95-100 AD.

It is true as I said, the apostates were snapping at the heels of the apostles who were acting as a restraint until the last of scripture was penned. Then, after that restraint was removed, the weeds were fertilized and the apostasy gained full growth, corrupting men more and more as ideas from outside of scripture were added by them.

If you are not going to accept anything written after the death of the apostles, you are dumping major portions of the NT canon. Right?

No I am not. None of what is written in the Christian scriptures was penned after John wrote his letters in 98CE. His Revelation was written in 96CE. I have no reason to believe that the books assigned to the Bible writers are in error. If God preserved his word down to this day, I am sure that the greatest power in existence can kept it free from error, including the names of their penmen.

The Pastorals are probably not genuine Paulines and written around 120. Corinthians represents a synthesis of fragments from earlier letters of Paul. Given that these earlier letters had to get lost or get destroyed in part and then the fragments reassembled, considerable time elapsed and they sere probably put together in their current form after the death of Paul. Also, you are gong to dump Acts, right? As the Book of Acts was written after the death of Paul. Of course, you are dropping the Johannie Comma and the ending of Mark. Right?

The book of Acts was written by Luke who also penned his gospel after carefully ascertaining that his information was correct.
Luke did not speak of himself as an eyewitness of the events in the life of Christ that are recorded in his Gospel account. (Luke 1:2) So, he apparently became a believer sometime after Pentecost of 33 C.E.

In the book of Acts, Luke is referred to in an indirect way by the use of the pronouns “we” and “us.” (Acts 16:10-17; 20:5–21:18; 27:1–28:16) He was with Paul at Troas on the apostle’s second missionary tour and accompanied him from there to Philippi, where he may have remained until Paul’s return on his third missionary journey. Luke accompanied Paul to Judea at the end of that missionary tour (Acts 21:7, 8, 15), and while the apostle was imprisoned for about two years at Caesarea, Luke probably wrote his Gospel account there (c. 56-58 C.E.). He accompanied Paul on his trip to Rome for trial. (Acts 27:1; 28:16) Since the book of Acts covers events from 33 C.E. down through two years of Paul’s imprisonment in Rome but does not record the outcome of Paul’s appeal to Caesar, Luke likely completed the book of Acts there by about 61 C.E.

Luke joined Paul in sending greetings to Christians at Colossae when Paul wrote to them from Rome (c. 60-61 C.E.), and the apostle identified him as “the beloved physician.” (Col 4:14) In writing to Philemon from Rome (c. 60-61 C.E.), Paul included greetings from Luke (Lucas, KJ), referring to him as one of his “fellow workers.” (Phm 24) That Luke stuck close to Paul and was with him shortly before the apostle’s martyrdom is evident from Paul’s remark, “Luke alone is with me.” (2 Tim 4:11)

I am wondering what your concept of teh canon is. I ask because there was no canon in place until long after the death of the apostles.

The canon of the Hebrew Scriptures was well fixed by the end of the fifth century B.C.E., containing the same writings that we have today.
The real test of canonicity, however, is not how many times or by what nonapostolic writer a certain book has been quoted. The contents of the book itself must give evidence that it is a product of holy spirit. Consequently, it cannot contain superstitions or demonism, nor can it encourage creature worship. It must be in total harmony and complete unity with the rest of the Bible, thus supporting the authorship of Jehovah God. Each book must conform to the divine “pattern of healthful words” and be in harmony with the teachings and activities of Christ Jesus. (2Tim 1:13; 1Cor 4:17) The apostles clearly had divine accreditation and they spoke in attestation of such other writers as Luke and James, the half brother of Jesus. By holy spirit the apostles had “discernment of inspired utterances” as to whether such were of God or not. (1Cor 12:4, 10) With the death of John, the last apostle, this reliable chain of divinely inspired men came to an end, and so with the Revelation, John’s Gospel, and his epistles, the Bible canon closed.

You say you reject Christendom right across the board, but you have yet to make a case. Could you, for example take up a major source from the Apostolic Period, say, Tertullian, and show me how you feel he blew it?

I never said that any of them "blew it"...what I said was that I cannot accept what the early church fathers taught as doctrine if it contradicts God's word. Man-made traditions did not just jump into Christian thought....they crept in gradually over a long period of time. The devil has had time up his sleeve so he does nothing in a hurry. If church dogma ends up being out of harmony with the word of God, I will take the word of God over any teaching or tradition of men.

By the end of the second century there was no question but that the canon of the Christian Greek Scriptures was closed, and we find such ones as Irenaeus, Clement of Alexandria, and Tertullian recognizing the writings comprising the Christian Scriptures as carrying authority equal to that of the Hebrew Scriptures. Irenaeus in appealing to the Scriptures makes no fewer than 200 quotations from Paul’s letters. Clement says he will answer his opponents by “the Scriptures which we believe are valid from their omnipotent authority,” that is, “by the law and the prophets, and besides by the blessed Gospel.” --The Ante-Nicene Fathers, Vol. II, p. 409, “The Stromata, or Miscellanies.”

Apostate Christianity still had plenty of time before Constantine's declaration of Roman Catholicism as the state religion of the empire in the 4th century. The passage of time has always been the undoing of God's people, spiritually speaking...sin leads to corruption and corrupt humans are easy targets for the devil.....history attests to that.
 

Deeje

Avid Bible Student
Premium Member
As a P.S. to my previous post, I would add that Mark, the earliest gospel, was written around 70 AD, with Matthew and Luke coming later.

I believe that Matthew wrote his gospel in 41CE.....Luke in 56-58 CE.....and Mark in 60-65 CE.

Given the life-span of persons at the time, Mark was probably written after the death of the apostles, aw well as Luke and Matthew. If you won't accept anything written after the death of the apostles, you will have to dump Mark, Matthew, and Luke.

You have no basis for believing that except assumption.....probably is not fact.
 

savagewind

Veteran Member
Premium Member
I believe that Matthew wrote his gospel in 41CE.....Luke in 56-58 CE.....and Mark in 60-65 CE.



You have no basis for believing that except assumption.....probably is not fact.
Who really is the faithful and discreet slave? "Probably is not fact".

I think you have proved that you can say probably is not fact but you believe it is fact respecting the governing body of Jehovah's Witnesses.

It means in your head you believe two that are opposite can both be true.

Probably is not fact and probably is fact.
 
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ashkat1`

Member
I believe that Matthew wrote his gospel in 41CE.....Luke in 56-58 CE.....and Mark in 60-65 CE.



You have no basis for believing that except assumption.....probably is not fact.
I disagree. I hold Mark was the earliest Gospel and probably written between 65 and 70 AD.
 

popsthebuilder

Active Member
So, I see that some people are very well versed in scripture here. It seems some are quite knowledgeable and perhaps even close to rightly guided. All grand assumptions really, based on very limited exposure. Never the less; let's really talk about the Holy Spirit. Can we, by the leave of GOD, speak more on what It is...relating to us personally and directly in our daily lives rather than focusing on Its' origins?
It being the Holy Spirit, of course. And Its' origin being the Lord, GOD.

Does anyone think that It is a thing that effects change within a believers mind, if not actions?

Is this potential for change easily negated or looked over by want for personal attainment (greed)?

Is it found in scripture that the Holy Spirit, in whomever it has effect, causes those to be of utterly one accord, or in harmony and like mind and willed? That will, of course being the Will of GOD?

I would like the honest opinions of those who have been posting here on not only the questions I have tried to pose here, but in much further discussion as well.

Thank any in advance.

Peace
 

ashkat1`

Member
[




Contrary to what you have to say, many sincere Christians do find the Holy Spirit to be a frightening entity, an alien, other-worldly intruder. That's why I mentioned to you teh conversation I had with Fred Rogers. I think that most Christians would be scared to death if they heard God's voice speaking to them from a bush, for example. Part of this has to do with nervousness about being approached by something truly transcendent. But a larger part has to do with the negative, world-negating way traditional Christianity has defined God.

I do not think the canon was firmly closed by the end of the second century. Tertullian cited only some, not all NT writings. He omits anything from II Peter, James, II and III John. He also favors the Shepherd of Hermes. Since his argument is that he will not accept anything that is not in Scripture, it appears he had a very different concept of the canon, one that includes the Shepherd and omits II Pr., II, James, and III Jn. Also, there is, within the Christian community, a strong Marcionite movement and also gnostic movement in place, which had a very different concept of the canon. Ireaneus points out that some Christians follow only one Gospel, whereas others follow more than four. He championed four, but his it is debatable how many other Christians jumped on board with him at the time.

There was no Hebrew canon as yet, if by Hebrew you mean Jewish in general. The Greek-speaking Jews in Alexandria have the Septuagint, which includes the Apocrypha, and then is much longer that the Masoretic texts. Jerome vacillated over whether to include the Apocrypha, but finally did begrudgingly. Using the DSS as an indicator, there were changes in the canon after 150 BC. The DSS do not contain the Book of Ester and also contain 15 additional psalms. In later Jewish writings, there are many debates among the rabbis as to why and whether certain books should be included in the OT.

I don't accept the Lukan authorship of either Luke or Acts. I do not view Acts as an eyewitness account. I think the "we" passages are either a redaction from an earlier work or some fraudulent attempt on the part of teh writer to pass himself off as an eye witness.

First, you told me you reject completely anything written after the death of the apostles. Now you tell me you will accept later teachings, provided they square with Scripture. I would appreciate it if you would explain this contradiction. For example, if you are rejecting anything written or decided after the apostles, then are you also rejecting Ireaneus' decision that there are 4 gospels?
 

Yoshua

Well-Known Member
We don't stop loving the person even if we hate their actions. God loves the sinner but hates the sin. Is that a hard concept? I have a granddaughter who is disfellowshipped at present.
Everything in me wishes she would abandon her immoral lifestyle and come home to her family, but it isn't up to us, and there is no way that we can approve of her lifestyle. We will never give up hope that she may in time, come to her senses like the prodigal son, however. Nothing is unforgivable.

Discipline, Paul said, could be "grievous" to the one receiving it, but we don't discipline our children because we hate them.....do we?
God's discipline is tough love. Like any good parent, he wants to correct us, not just punish us.

Disfellowshipping is the loss of spiritual fellowship....we do not associate with those who are receiving discipline. If we give our children "time-out" as discipline, we don't allow them out to play or permit other children to go into their room to play with them...why?....where would be the discipline?

Those who want to criticize the methods we use can do that as much as they like.....we will continue to carry out what the scriptures tell us to do. No one comes into our brotherhood is is unaware of their responsibilities towards God and what constitutes a disfellowshipping offense.

The churches are afraid to discipline for obvious reasons. Look at what happens in the churches today....unrepentant sinners are welcome and no care is taken to prevent "a little leaven fermenting the whole lump". That is not what Jesus taught. Negligent shepherds will answer for their failures.
Hi Deeje,

Thanks for replying. I have no problem with disciplining. Initially, It is between God and the person who does the immoral lifestyle. Aside from what you have said about disfellowshipping, do you have other method?

Since we know that not all member inside the church is perfect and without sin? Do you agree? Therefore, how the sinners will know that he is being loved if he is disfellowshipped, and cannot step inside the church with his former brothers and sisters?

Thanks
 

Deeje

Avid Bible Student
Premium Member
I disagree. I hold Mark was the earliest Gospel and probably written between 65 and 70 AD.

Isn't it a matter of whose scholarship you accept? You are entitled to hold whatever view you like.....that is why we all have free will. Our decisions make us who we are, and who we are makes us either acceptable as citizens of God's kingdom or it doesn't. Since we all receive the same judgment, we have to wait and see if we are accepted or rejected by Jesus. (Matt 7:21-23) His judgment is the only one that matters......right?

First, you told me you reject completely anything written after the death of the apostles. Now you tell me you will accept later teachings, provided they square with Scripture. I would appreciate it if you would explain this contradiction. For example, if you are rejecting anything written or decided after the apostles, then are you also rejecting Ireaneus' decision that there are 4 gospels?

Perhaps it is what I am rejecting that should be clarified.

The core doctrines of Christendom (for almost all denominations) were formulated by an apostate church. Do you believe that the apostasy took place as Jesus and the apostles said it would?

These doctrines include the trinity...immortality of the human soul...hellfire as an eternal punishment for the wicked....a heavenly reward for all the faithful (including pre-Christian servants of God)....and the cross as a religious symbol. These beliefs were formulated or adopted into church dogma in the centuries after Jesus and his apostles died. These are the teachings I reject. Jesus never taught any of these things.

Even though the Catholic Church that was the agency through which the Bible canon was compiled, there is no teaching of Christendom that is contained in scripture. These themes are forced into scripture but none of them were Jewish teachings. As a Jew, Jesus would not have taught them.
 

Deeje

Avid Bible Student
Premium Member
Hi Deeje,

Thanks for replying. I have no problem with disciplining. Initially, It is between God and the person who does the immoral lifestyle. Aside from what you have said about disfellowshipping, do you have other method?

What other method? Loss of spiritual fellowship takes place until repentance is demonstrated.
Discipline can come in the loss of privileges in the congregation for some less serious offenses, but that is between the elders and the person concerned. None of our business actually. We are warned about gossiping. It is not a very Christian thing to do.

Since we know that not all member inside the church is perfect and without sin? Do you agree? Therefore, how the sinners will know that he is being loved if he is disfellowshipped, and cannot step inside the church with his former brothers and sisters?

Even though we are all sinners, God does not tolerate unrepentant (serious) sin in the congregation, which is why he has authorized the elders to act as judges within the congregation. As I have outlined to you, it has to be serious enough to be brought before the elders in the first place. Minor matters are settled in a spirit of love and forgiveness among the brothers themselves. But if a serious breach occurs, Jesus outlined the steps to take.

Matthew 18:15-17:
15 “Moreover, if your brother commits a sin, go and reveal his fault between you and him alone. If he listens to you, you have gained your brother. 16 But if he does not listen, take along with you one or two more, so that on the testimony of two or three witnesses every matter may be established. 17 If he does not listen to them, speak to the congregation. If he does not listen even to the congregation, let him be to you just as a man of the nations and as a tax collector."

First approach the person who has committed the sin and tell them that they need to report it to the elders, whose job it is first of all, to help the sinner to repentance. If they do so and repentance is demonstrated, then no disfellowshipping will take place. Counsel and prayer will be given with a view to helping that person receive God's forgiveness. But if the person demonstrates no repentance, or denies the wrongdoing in spite of witness testimony, then the elders will take it further, all the while encouraging the wrongdoer to soften their heart, humble their spirit and receive God's forgiveness. But if their efforts fail, the end result is that the person becomes "as a man of the nations and as a tax collector"....in Jewish circles, both were considered to be undesirable companions.

No one is prevented from attending Christian meetings because they are open to the public. What is withdrawn is fellowship....we will not speak to the disfellowshipped person, we will not eat a meal with them, or treat them as a brother or sister. They have been removed from the congregation, so we will not associate with them. Disfellowshipped family members who live in our house remain members of our family but we will have no spiritual association with them.

1 Corinthians 5:9-13:
"In my letter I wrote you to stop keeping company with sexually immoral people, 10 not meaning entirely with the sexually immoral people of this world or the greedy people or extortioners or idolaters. Otherwise, you would actually have to get out of the world. 11 But now I am writing you to stop keeping company with anyone called a brother who is sexually immoral or a greedy person or an idolater or a reviler or a drunkard or an extortioner, not even eating with such a man. 12 For what do I have to do with judging those outside? Do you not judge those inside, 13 while God judges those outside? “Remove the wicked person from among yourselves.”

Or in the case of those who want to disrupt our peace and harmony by contesting beliefs openly and in a spirit of contention or opposition, we will not tolerate that either.
2 John:10, 11:
"If anyone comes to you and does not bring this teaching, do not receive him into your homes or say a greeting to him. 11 For the one who says a greeting to him is a sharer in his wicked works."

There are ways to express doubts and to ask questions without disrupting the peace of others. We are to be peace makers, not peace disruptors.

I hope that has answered your questions.
 

Yoshua

Well-Known Member
I have already explained this several times.....The being that became the man Jesus existed with God in heaven as "the Word". (Logos or spokesman) He was God's right hand man, (so to speak,) working alongside his Father in creation. (Proverbs 8:30, 31) He spoke for God and he fulfilled roles that he was assigned to carry out. In each role he was given an appropriate name. Michael is just one of them, as the commander in chief of all the angelic forces. The man Jesus died and was resurrected as the spirit being he was before he came to fulfill his mission on earth.
Then that would mean Jesus pre-exist as the Word. So you are saying that in the beginning, there is Archangel Michael that exists because there is the Word who became man-Jesus. May I ask if when He (Jesus) is the Archangel Michael, and when He (Jesus) is the Word?
Matthew 12:18-32)
Behold, my servant whom I have chosen, my beloved with whom my soul is well pleased.
I will put my Spirit upon him, and he will proclaim justice to the Gentiles.....Whoever is not with me is against me, and whoever does not gather with me scatters. 31 Therefore I tell you, every sin and blasphemy will be forgiven people, but the blasphemy against the Spirit will not be forgiven. 32 And whoever speaks a word against the Son of Man will be forgiven, but whoever speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come."
(ESV)

Have you ever wondered why we can only sin against the holy spirit unforgivably? Why is sinning against his other two parts, not equally deserving of the same penalty?
If the Holy Spirit is not a person (impersonal), why He grieved, convicts and speaking??by Yoshua

No. It is not what I meant. It is about personal and impersonal. As I know JW's believed that the HS is a force. If that would be, then how come a force, and an impersonal speaks, convict and grieved?
John 6:62-63:
Jesus asked....."What, therefore, if you should see the Son of man ascending to where he was before?  It is the spirit that is life-giving; the flesh is of no use at all."

How did Jesus ascend to heaven? He was raised "in the spirit" according to Peter. (1 Peter 3:18) So if he was a spirit when he returned to heaven, that means he was a spirit before his sojourn on earth.
Can you show the supporting scriptures that says the spirit being became Jesus?by Yoshua

Matt 1:20
20 But after he had considered this, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said, "Joseph son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary home as your wife, because what is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit. NIV

Luke 1:35
35 The angel answered, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you.NIV
It says that the Holy Spirit overshadowed Mary. Now, may I ask if how come Archangel Michael, an angelic being is the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit is the Spirit of God. How come that the Spirit of God is Archangel Michael and Jesus:shrug:???
There are no false prophesies, just mistakes in the timing of one prophesy which has still to see the final parts of its fulfillment. (Matthew 24:36-39)
We are doing the same work that Noah did before God brought the flood. The same work that Jesus and his apostles did before the fall of Jerusalem in 70CE. (Matthew 10:11-15; Luke 21:20-22) It contains a warning...but who is listening?
If the prophets spoke words coming from Jehovah, does it mean that Jehovah make mistakes, unsure in the timing of a prophesy?? :rolleyes:
Does a mistake is not "false"? or a mistake can be right?:eek:

Thanks
 
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