james2ko
Well-Known Member
Ruth 1:3*In time E·lim′e·lech the husband of Na′o·mi died, so that she remained with her two sons. 4*Later the men took wives for themselves, Mo′ab·ite women. The name of the one was Or′pah, and the name of the other Ruth.
compare this to:
1Kings 11:1 And King Sol′o·mon himself loved many foreign wives along with the daughter of Phar′aoh, Mo′ab·ite, Am′mon·ite, E′dom·ite, Si·do′ni·an [and] Hit′tite women, 2*from the nations of whom Jehovah had said to the sons of Israel: YOU must not go in among them,
According to both accounts, the sons took Moabite women who, according to 1Kings, are 'foreign' women.
If the ruth was an isrealite, she would not have been called a 'moabite' even if she was dwelling in the lang of Moab. Naomi was not called a Moabite and she was living in that land. The only women who were 'moabites' were 'foreign' women.....ie, non isrealites.
And If Ruth was an Isrealite, then why would she be called a 'moabite' even after returning to Judah?
Ruth 4:10*And also Ruth the Mo′ab·i·tess, the wife of Mah′lon, I do buy for myself as a wife to cause the name of the dead man to rise upon his inheritance
that wouldnt make any sense in calling her a moabite if she was an isrealite. And if you still are not sure if Ruth was a moabite, then perhaps you need to ask yourself why you dont believe what the bible says.
You did not answer my question. One on one--yes or no?