I remember when I was in Catholic grade school and I was taught that Jesus died so our sins may be forgiven. It didn't make sense then and it still doesn't make sense now.
I understand why the Ancients would perform sacrifices but what was God's thought process?
God: "Man has sinned and I cannot and will not forgive them."
Thousands of years go by.
God: "Someone has to pay for the sins of man. I will send my Son in human form and have Him be Crucified. Then, I will forgive mankind's sins."
OK, God would have thought something more elaborate and smarter than that but I just wanted to convey my perplexed state of mind. Couldn't the Crucifixion have a different meaning/purpose?
I believe you don't understand because it makes no sense and it makes no sense because it is man made. Why do I say that ? Here's a comparative narrative between the Bible and the Qur'an :
The scenario(Matthew 27) occurs before the crucifixion and
most of the Bible translations read as follows :
17 So when they had gathered, Pilate said to them, “Whom do you want me to release for you:
Barabbas, or Jesus who is called Christ?”
...
20 Now the chief priests and the elders persuaded the crowd to ask for Barabbas and destroy Jesus. 21 The governor again said to them, “Which of the two do you want me to release for you?” And they said, “Barabbas.” 22 Pilate said to them, “Then what shall I do with Jesus who is called Christ?” They all said, “Let him be crucified!”
However,
in NIV translation, it reads as follows :
17 So when the crowd had gathered, Pilate asked them, “Which one do you want me to release to you:
Jesus Barabbas, or Jesus who is called the Messiah?”
...
20 But the chief priests and the elders persuaded the crowd to ask for Barabbas and to have Jesus executed. 21 “Which of the two do you want me to release to you?” asked the governor. “Barabbas,” they answered. 22 “What shall I do, then, with Jesus who is called the Messiah?” Pilate asked.They all answered, “Crucify him!”
From : [youtube]2m4KW-dysKk[/youtube]
From Jesus to Muhammad: A History of Early Christianity - YouTube (min 19)
By Dr. Jerald F. Dirks, who used to be a Pastor and has a Master of Divinity from Harvard Divinity School.
Points to note:
1. 'Barabbas' in the first translation and 'Jesus Barabbas' in 2nd translation
2. Jesus who is called 'the Christ' in the first translation and the Jesus who is called 'the Messiah' in the 2nd translation.
So what's the difference ? Huge difference. See the NIV translation : “Which one do you want me to release to you:
Jesus Barabbas, or Jesus who is called the Messiah?” So there were
actually two people named Jesus ?
Jesus Barabbas means - Jesus "son of the father". Barabbas in hebrew is not a name but means 'son of father'. On the other hand, Jesus the Messiah simply means ' Jesus' the anointed one and that word is used for others in the Bible (notice it didn't say Christ) also.
So read the verses from the 2nd translation again and you'll find out that they released 'Jesus the son of the Father' and crucified 'Jesus the anointed one'.
If you don't believe me, take it to one of the Christian Scholars who knows the language and familiar with earlier manuscripts. And the reason, NIV at least uses Jesus Barabbas because it goes to a earlier manuscript for translation.
Now what the Qur'an says about that :
"And because of their saying, `We killed Messiah Jesus, son of Mary,
the Messenger of God'-
but they killed him not, nor crucified him,but the resemblance of Jesus was put over another man (and they killed that man), and those who differ therein are full of doubts. They have no knowledge,
they follow nothing but conjecture. For surely they killed him not (Jesus, son of Mary). But God raised him (Jesus) up unto Himself. And God is ever All-Powerful, All-Wise"
(Al Quran 4:157-158).
Why does the Qur'an say that :
"So woe to those who write the "scripture" with their own hands, then say, "This is from Allah ," in order to exchange it for a small price. Woe to them for what their hands have written and woe to them for what they earn." (Al Qur'an 2:79)
Not too different from what the Bible says : “‘How can you say, “We are wise, for we have the law of the LORD,”
when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?" (Jeremiah 8:8)
Jeremiah 8 NIV -
Also, view the same video linked above to see how early Christianity was more in line without the confusing stuff of trinity, atonement etc.
In addition to God changing His mind according to what you have stated in the OP, here's another reason why it doesn't make any sense :
Concept of atonement gives free pass to all the sinners. It is like saying when person X murders person Y and family of Y seeks Justice - Judge says ok, I'll give death sentence to my Son and let person X go free (so he can commit more murders freely).
Better yet, the Judge says X will be roaming the same heaven freely with Y without suffering any other consequences while the poor Son of the Judge had to go through the 'sin compensating death'. Would that be considered Justice to any sane person under any circumstance ?
Peace.