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This was the translation of the Pe****ta which you tried to use.
I've already made that clear:
Interesting. I actually don't even remember discussing (marya). I did see that you tried to introduce this concept in the other thread but it was not addressed by me because like above you seem not to really know what you're talking about. If you're going to introduce the pe****ta here and want us to accept it (the pe****ta not this rendering) then why didn't you accept the pe****ta translation of (John 8:58 from the peshiatta I presented). Instead you fought tooth and nail against it.
Now, sense you've introduce 1 Cor. 12:3 as your proof text then let's see what scholars say about it.
Professor Sebastian Brock of Oxford University, the worlds foremost authority on the Aramaic language, stated that marya is an emphatic form of mar (lord) and does not mean Lord Yah.
"Mor (or Mar) is an honorific title used both for bishops and for saints" (Sebastian P. Brock, An Introduction to Syriac Studies p. 1)
"Mar, literally 'My Lord', a usual title of ecclesiastics and saints. This title always occurs in the commentaries when the Commentary of Ephraem is referred to" (Society for New Testament Studies, New Testament Studies, vol. 8 (1962), p. 294)
Introduction to Syriac by Wheeler Thackston (Ibex Publishers, 1999), p.55
marya the Lord
That's not ܡܪܝܐDUKHRANA BIBLICAL RESEARCH at Dukhrana Analytical Lexicon of the Syriac New Testament
mry
noun
lord,master
Comprehensive Aramaic Lexicon
(mārē, māryā, mārā n.m. master
1 master Com. --(a) human Com. --(b) divine Com. (b.1) mArA), mAryA) : the Lord, God Syr. (b.2) mAry : my Lord, usually in reference to Jesus Syr...
Incorrect. (Unfaithful or just copying what you don't understand?)John 12:20-21
And there were also among the people, some who had come up to worship at the feast. These came, and approached Philip, who was of Bethsaida in Galilee, and said to him: My lord [marya], we are desirous to see Jesus.
Surely we're not to assume that Phillip is (Lord Yaweh)..?
Psalms 110:1
The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
The same word and lexicographical definition is there as well. Surely we're not talking about two gods. The word "lord" has multiple application and is not exclusive to "God".
So as we can see,ܘܡܪܐ ܥܠ ܟܠܗ ܒܝܬܗ = lord of his entire household
So as we can see,
ܡܪܐ
does not exclusively mean "LORD" but can mean "lord".
Thank you very much!
Try to be nice when you ask for something.Get the script for Psalms 97:5 and 136:3 and Acts 10:4.
You know it's irrelevant, but here:I have yet to see any translation of the Greek that renders Luke 2:11's Kyrios in upper case.
Umm, why don't you have Psalm 97:5?
lol
So you're left with nothing as usual.
Go to this site and ask them why they don't have it:
The Comprehensive Aramaic Lexicon
lolSays the one who's left with nothing for Psalms 97:5, if you don't got it, you don't got it. I don't see a link for a contact option, perhaps you can paste it.
lol
That's funny.
But try not to look that desperate.
You're already defeated, yet again...
Why is that funny? You told me to contact them, and they apparently don't want to be bothered, lest they'd have a contact option. Why would they possibly not have Psalm 97:5?
If Yeshua is lord then who is Yeshua's lord (Matthew 11:25)..?
This is an example of trying to change the subject when you are defeated.
But even the verse reference that you gave has nothing to do with your post!
Can you read:Notice how it wasn't even addressed to you...??? instead it was a general question. Care to answer it? If not I won't hold it against you.....
But even the verse reference that you gave has nothing to do with your post!