I've read what you've written and appreciate the explanation.
There's how I understand what you're saying which I'll get at (quickly) and then there's the debate that is philosophical. I desire to go there, but will admit there is relative inequality at work (that I think goes two ways, you to me, and me to you). IOW, we may both show up as having convictions that are talking over the head of the other, but is something we 'completely' believe / understand.
How I understand what you're saying is: what we commonly refer to as "1" is an approximation and is equal to .999....
That may not be exactly how you are explaining it, and yet is what I'm compelled to stand by, until something 'more logical' presents itself.
From this point on in this post, I am looking for philosophical debate on what you wrote. Which stems from the approximation understanding and goes into more detail.
Whether or not 0.999... = 1 is one of the most common questions encountered by calculus tutors and professors by students -- you're not alone in your confusion over this.
The problem you're experiencing is the same as Zeno's paradox: when you're trying to conceive of 0.999... as a number, you're conceiving it as 0.9 + 0.09 + 0.009 + ... as if it's added piece by piece over time, rather than conceiving it as 0.999... with infinite 9's all at once.
Be that as it may, it strikes me as illogical to conceive of it as .999 (with infinite 9's) and not see that as approximation of 1. Such that, if I saw 'something' that was .999 (with say 100 nines), I would think I would not have any noticeable or discernible difference between that and the full version. And arguably the full version could always be the .999 variation, and I may never know. Like if you say to me, here is 1 tomato. That may be the .999 version you are giving me, and I would rather easily take that to be "1 tomato."
Yes, you would always be short of 1 if you started at 0.9 and just added from there piece by piece: but that's not what the number 0.999... represents. It represents a number with infinite 9's after the decimal: they're already there, you don't have to add them piece by piece infinitely.
I really think I get this but I also acknowledge that from your perspective, you are convinced I'm not getting this fully. And is where there could be gap of debate that I'm not sure how we'd get around this.
There are many, many, many proofs professors have come up with to convince their students that 0.999... = 1 even before teaching them exactly why they're the same number (just expressed differently); i.e. by teaching them the calculus. If this interests you, then I encourage learning calculus because it can be interesting and fun contrary to popular opinion!
This just strikes me as teaching someone that the approximation is the same thing as the 'full thing' by more or less convincing the student that what you always interpreted as 'full thing' was (and always will be) an approximation.
But, here is a neat way to think about it even without the calculus:
1/3 = 0.333...
This is easier to accept, right? 1/3 is just another way of expressing 0.333... because they're the same number, just expressed differently. They both represent the number you have when one is divided by three.
I disagree they are the same number.
1/3 = 1 part of 3. Such that I can see that 1 + 1 + 1 = 3.
.333 = an approximate relation to 1 that goes on infinitely, and I would say technically (logically) is not equal to 1/3. I realize for some it is equal.
There is part of me that wishes to say if .999... equals 1, that arguably .333... could be equal to 1. Not sure how I would prove this other than to take the proof for .999 = 1, and then manipulate that to fit what I'm getting at. For I am saying .999 equaling 1 strikes me as manipulating (pure) logic.
Well, 1/3 * 3 = 1, right? If I have a third, and I multiply it by three, I'll end up with one whole.
Agreed, though I think of it as equaling 3, to be honest. And that 3 is a whole number.
This is also where I want to make the point that all whole numbers are equal to 1 (in essence) even while in some method of me proving that, I'm not sure how I would do this. Perhaps someone else has already done that, and I'm off the hook for having to try and prove it. I understand how we traditionally say (and you have said) 1/3 * 3 = 1, though with logic that is this thread, I would admit that truly understanding 1/3rd is challenging if relating it to 1.
So, what is 0.333... * 3?
You'll get 0.999...
But remember that 1/3 = 0.333..., and that 1/3 * 3 = 1.
That means that 0.333... * 3 = 0.999..., which must also = 1!
This again assumes that we all agree that .333.... equals 1/3rd. I do not believe it does, and think with basic math that .333... * 3 equals (as you said) .999.... which is an approximation of 1, but via pure logic is not 1, and is less than 1.
/debate.