Hello Ceridwen018,
I appreciate your thoughtful and measured comments.
You said:
I have a strong problem with pro-choicers trying to sugarcoat things, perhaps to help themselves sleep better at night. You value logical arguments against feelings, I am sure, but are you ready to accept the medical science over the desperate cry of denial that says, "Its not living or human, so it doesn't matter!"
First, any insomnia I may periodically experience is not attributable to my position(s) supporting rights of individual privacy and personal morality/ethics
Second, it would be inaccurate to suggest that I (always, or exclusively)) value logic
over emotion, for that is simply not the case. I do not attempt to logically evaluate the unconditional love a dog evinces towards his human family members...or why I continually love my wife despite the fact she sometimes does things that cause me to not like her very much...or why I prefer vanilla ice cream over chocolate. These are matters of
pure emotional response, otherwise unworthy of grand introspection or analysis. The
difference is, I can separate matters of emotion from matters of logic, and know when and how to utilize proper discretion and appropriate effort in discussing the often dichotomous distinctions between the two.
Third, in answer to your pointed question I would reiterate that I am foremost a skeptic by nature, and in practice.
Very rarely will I accept
any notion ("scientific" or not) on "face value" alone. If I were a native-borne Mizzou, I might say; "
Don't tell me...show me". The conclusions I have drawn are my own to account for, and I do not readily align myself with any aspects or proclamations of abject denial or absolute certitude.
As regards the quote: "Its not living or human, so it doesn't matter!"; I would say that it "matters" (insomuch that intentional termination of
any living thing is often regrettable - but I'm not giving up hamburgers or fried chicken as a result...because my interests supercede any cow's or chicken's own interests), but not as
much as (or
more than) an individual (human) person's own "rights" to determine and choose (as best they can) their own life and destiny.
You said:
"A fetus has as much potential of becoming a born baby as a born baby has potential to become a toddler. Yet, we cannot kill born babies. This is why I have a serious problem with the "potential" argument--its just a play on semantics."
[Forgive me, but as preface:
"semantics"; noun -
"The study or science of meaning in language.
The meaning or the interpretation of a word, sentence, or other language form"
Source: The American Heritage® Dictionary of the English Language]
"Semantics" are how we define parallels and illustrate differences in matters of civil/criminal law.
For instance, there are numerous "semantical" distinctions we employ to define the killing of one human person by another - If of
willful intent (or especially premeditated intent), we define such an act as "murder". If
accidental in intent, we call such killings "manslaughter". If intentional, yet
mitigating circumstances are extant (ie., self-defense), a "killing" of another person has undeniably occurred (someone is, in fact, quite dead), yet no legal culpability may be attached for such an act. The same is true for those deemed unresponsible for their own actions by means of mental defect, or a lacking capacity to appreciate the consequences of their actions (akin to a five-year old that accidentally shoots a sibling).
Should it be considered a "more heinous" crime to kill and dismember person with an axe, than to merely shoot them with a gun? Are there any "semantical" distinctions to be drawn and qualified in the killing of another person? You tell me.
It is often convenient or comforting to simplify an person's or societal action or choice in facile terms (ie., "Abortion is murder!"; a "War on Terror (or poverty, or drugs, or whathaveyou)"; "Fur is Dead"; "Just say no"; and a host of other simplistic/jingoistic phrases that ignore/dismiss important aspects of nuance and relative perspective).
So, it may be (at least) partially correct to conclude that qualifying a "potential" person from an "actual" person is "just a play on semantics"...but in terms of defining law...it's a necessary component.
Another point is that a fetus is much more than "human tissue", just like you and I.
Very early on, a fetus has numerous differentiated tissues and functioning organs. The heart beats and brain activity can be observed by the end of the first trimester, and many women don't even realize they are pregnant at that point.
Your point is noted, but it still doesn't define by what measure, or when (by time frame) a potential person becomes an individual person.
[Consider: In the not too distant future, it may be possible to gestate a human embryo without need of a human host - from conception to full-term (9 month) development. Now...what if the "potential person" in question was conceived (not cloned) from
anonymous donor egg and sperm?
No named or known "mother" or "father".
No "birth-mother".
To whom does this (now) "person" lay claim as rightful parents?
Who now lays claim (and responsibility) to the new "baby"?
The medical doctor that performed the initial conception, or the staff that oversaw the gestation process?
How about the facility (or corporation) that provided the means and methods of such an anonymous procreation?
Is such a "baby" a "person" or property?
On the other hand, if the instigating doctor of conception drops the petri dish that holds the fertilized ovum, is he guilty of manslaughter?
What if the developing "petri-fetus" is accidentally used as an ashtray by an unsuspecting visitor, or a supervising staff member forgets to "feed" the developing embryo for a weekend, and it subsequently "dies"?
Whom is culpable, and for what crime?
What if a consenting couple initially decides (and pays) to have such a facility procreate an anonymous embryo, only to decide a month later that they, after all, do not want the "potential" person? Should they be legally obliged to accept and provide for what they bought and paid for?
Could/should another couple be allowed to "adopt" the unwanted embryo without the initial couple's legal consent?
Is the unwanted embryo a person, or property (and if so, who retains the rights as such)?
Can the embryo petition for legal counsel in it's defense? If so, how can it aid in it's own defense?
Whom does the State petition for/against, and to what/which beneficient end?
Does the State argue for the rights of a couple to choose not accept a procreated anonymous "person", or against the "rights" of say...a homsexual couple, to "adopt" an unwanted anonymous embryo? If so, then whom is culpable for the cost and care of the gestating "potential" person - the couple that paid for the initial conception procedure; the prospective adoptive couple; or the State itself as self-appointed guardian and ward?
And so on, and so on...
And I haven't even touched on human cloning issues yet...;-)]
You said:
Also, premature babies are able to be saved and kept alive at earlier and earlier stages in the pregnancy. Right now, a 24 week old fetus can survive outside of the womb, and that is only the middle of the second trimester.
Thanks to the "miracles" of modern medical science, yes. And as illustrated above, those "miracles" may (one day) extend to the point where a human host may not be required at all to conceive, gestate, and subsequently "deliver" any human baby (with or without any "parental" interest, involvement, or consent whatsoever). Someday (soon enough), we may see veritable "baby factories", wherein companies (for profit) may in fact "produce" (albeit "anonymosuly) genetically favorable or specific "persons" by mail order, or a few clicks of stated preferences on a web site. How many you want? What color eyes would you prefer? Tall or short? Smart, athletic, or long-lived (or all)?
Philosophically, at some point, our society and culture will have to confront these "potentialities", and craft definable aspects of secular law to encompass the breadth of impending and opinionated conflicts of ethics and morality...both opposed and in concert with civil/human (established legal and protected) rights.
We are dealing today with similar aspects of what constitutes or defines "person-hood" in matters of "right-to-die" cases. The "wonders" of medical science and technology allow for virtual unending artificial support for basic bodily mechanics. We can sustain blood flow, breathing, and eating - all by artificial means...almost indefinitely.
But just because it's possible, does that mean it's practical, or even humane? Is a "person" with no measurable brainwave activity alive or dead (it depends upon which state you reside), or even a "person" at all? If a person's heart stops beating, how long should heroic measures be employed to revive such a victim? Why should a doctor decide? Does it mitigate matters if that doctor is in a hospital, in a disaster area, or on a battlefield? What if that doctor could save five other lives by "giving up" on the first victim? Which choice is more ethical and moral? Do we persecute the choice of abandoning a brain-dead person for the potential of saving five others? For that matter, is it more or less ethical and moral to feed and clothe starving children in some far flung, unseen land...before providing the same care to one's own next-door neighbors?
Does "potential" play a role in making these decisions?
Are the worms out of the can yet? ;-)