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Why is the argument that there were no Palestinians raised?

icehorse

......unaffiliated...... anti-dogmatist
Premium Member
The only context where it has any validity would apply equally to the Israelis. If there was no Palestine, because it was
not a formal state - then by the same token there was no Israel.

Well how about Jordanians and Kurds (and some others I'm sure I'm missing)? It strikes me that no matter how you slice it, the logic is inconsistently applied.
 

icehorse

......unaffiliated...... anti-dogmatist
Premium Member
What about the Kurds and Jordanians? What are you asking?

So between 3000 years ago and 150 years ago, all manner of tribes lived in the regions carved up so inelegantly by the Brits. Jews included. For *whatever* reason, the typical arguments these days focus on only the Jews and the Palestinians. Why not expand these discussions to include the other tribes that also have had traditional presences here? How about the tribes subsumed within Jordan? How about the Kurds? How about others?

It seems that some arbitrary lines were drawn.
 
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