metis
aged ecumenical anthropologist
Actually it's not under Jewish Law, as causing a woman to miscarry resulted in a fine, not capital punishment.I say murder because I feel it is murder under OT law.
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Actually it's not under Jewish Law, as causing a woman to miscarry resulted in a fine, not capital punishment.I say murder because I feel it is murder under OT law.
Actually it's not under Jewish Law, as causing a woman to miscarry resulted in a fine, not capital punishment.
It is not if you bother to take some time to look it up: Judaism 101: A List of the 613 Mitzvot (Commandments)That's your opinion.
It is not if you bother to take some time to look it up: Judaism 101: A List of the 613 Mitzvot (Commandments)
May as well ask why there is a tradition going back to, at least, the Didache understanding that the prohibition on murder included abortion.So why do modern Bible based Christians?
The other part of the puzzle is that it often doesn't make sense in the context of other things they're doing. It's very common for people to oppose measures that decrease the amount of abortion by decreasing unwanted pregnancy (e.g. contraception and proper sex ed) as well as measures that encourage women to choose options other than abortion by means that benefit the woman (e.g. government-funded medical care, or a decent job-protected, paid parental leave).But I really started this thread asking "Why?" of Scripture based Christians. I know Scripture pretty well, and feticide just isn't in there as an issue. It would be different if Christians were more honest and sensible about it. But it seems more to be used as a moral football for political purposes, using ineffective and destructive methods. The end results of such methods just make things worse.
I understand that. To me, moral opposition to elective abortion is kind of a no brainer.May as well ask why there is a tradition going back to, at least, the Didache understanding that the prohibition on murder included abortion.
Even the part of the movement that's serious about preventing abortion seems generally uninterested in any approach to reduce abortions that will make a pregnant woman happier or better off.The ProLife movement in the USA today seems more interested in scoring donations and elections than actually preventing abortion! This gets my goat. Because even people like VP Pence don't care as much about reducing the problem as they do scoring off it.
My point is that Christians, as far back as we have been called that, have opposed abortion as scripturally proscribed. You can say you don't believe that there is anything particularly against abortion in Christian scripture, but, we have a long tradition dating back to the earliest years of Church leaders and fathers disagreeing with you.But it isn't scriptural.
I fully agree with you on this, and it disgusts me.To be perfectly blunt, I think many ProLife leaders would hate having abortion disappear, because it would deprive them of the advantages gained by pretending to oppose it. This isn't different from the Gay Rights people who would hate to see homophobia disappear, because fighting it is so fun and profitable.
Same with some anti racist people, like BLM.
It seems like that question could be settled quickly and easily by going to the scriptures themselves, no?My point is that Christians, as far back as we have been called that, have opposed abortion as scripturally proscribed. You can say you don't believe that there is anything particularly against abortion in Christian scripture, but, we have a long tradition dating back to the earliest years of Church leaders and fathers disagreeing with you.
Taking it out of the context of how it was actually understood is pure sophistry.It seems like that question could be settled quickly and easily by going to the scriptures themselves, no?
I mean, regardless of how long anyone has held the opinion that the Christian scriptures prohibit abortion, that prohibition is either there or it isn't... right? So what does the Bible actually say that you think prohibits abortion?
The punishment for murder in the Old Testament is death. The punishment for causing a woman to miscarry (and against her will, not voluntarily as in abortion) is a fine. Not as simple as it seems, apparently.Taking it out of the context of how it was actually understood is pure sophistry.
Christian scripture prohibits murder and Christians have understood that to include abortion as long as we have existed. Pretty simple here.
But anybody who reads the OT can see that it isn't. To use your catch-phrase, "Opinion noted, and rejected" because I can read the Bible.I say murder because I feel it is murder under OT law.
So do I. So does everyone who stayed awake during elementary biology class. "Life cycle of a Primate" is settled science.I consider the fertilized egg to be a human being.
Not all homicides are murder. My real mom would have died without a surgical abortion.Killing that unborn human being is murder, the way I see it.
Based on what? Not Scripture, that's certain. Because I have read it. And I have a cursory "laymans" understanding of the culture of the day. Humans weren't considered alive if they didn't breathe. It's a primitive understanding, but it is all they had.I don't think OT law specifically mentions abortion because it is interpreted as I have interpreted it.
So do I. But it still isn't in Scripture. You are adding your own opinions about morality to the Bible.I believe God sees an unborn child the same way he sees me or you, as far as being a human is concerned.
The only way to know what it "actually says" is to know how it was understood by the creator and the intended audience. The only thing that matters about language is how it is intended to be understood. Writing is a method to create common understanding using symbols. Without the understanding the words are literally meaningless.But understanding it to say something and what it actually says are two different things in this instance.
I'm fairly sure the thread title and original post ask why Christians believe there is a scriptural basis for condemnation of abortion.The punishment for murder in the Old Testament is death. The punishment for causing a woman to miscarry (and against her will, not voluntarily as in abortion) is a fine. Not as simple as it seems, apparently.
In the same way it wouldn't "exactly equate" with 'Christian scripture prohibits bombing orphanages.' Would you have that same argument with me?Edit: it sound like you're saying that Christian scripture doesn't explicitly prohibit abortion, that this leap is an inference on your part, and that you defend this leap by saying that there's a long-standing tradition of making it. This doesn't exactly equate with "Christian scripture prohibits abortion."
Taking it out of the context of how it was actually understood is pure sophistry.
Christian scripture prohibits murder and Christians have understood that to include abortion as long as we have existed. Pretty simple here.
In the same way it wouldn't "exactly equate" with 'Christian scripture prohibits bombing orphanages.' Would you have that same argument with me?
Yep. And I think it's telling that you haven't actually given one yet.I'm fairly sure the thread title and original post ask why Christians believe there is a scriptural basis for condemnation of abortion.
No, because it would be bizarre to assume, without other supporting information, that "you shall not murder" means "you shall not murder except by these particular methods."In the same way it wouldn't "exactly equate" with 'Christian scripture prohibits bombing orphanages.' Would you have that same argument with me?
And for that, we go to sources from that group in that period.Again the only meaning these words have is found in how the ancient authors intended them and how the intended audience received them.
The Fetus in Jewish Law | My Jewish LearningTurning to talmudic sources, the Mishnah asserts the following: “If a woman is having difficulty in giving birth [and her life is in danger], one cuts up the fetus within her womb and extracts it limb by limb, because her life takes precedence over that of the fetus. But if the greater part was already born, one may not touch it, for one may not set aside one person’s life for that of another.”
Rabbi Yom Tov Lippman Heller, known as Tosafot Yom Tov, in his commentary on this passage in the Mishnah, explains that the fetus is not considered a nefesh until it has egressed into the air of the world and, therefore, one is permitted to destroy it to save the mother’s life. Similar reasoning is found in Rashi’s commentary on the talmudic discussion of this mishnaic passage, where Rashi states that as long as the child has not come out into the world, it is not called a living being, i.e., nefesh. Once the head of the child has come out, the child may not be harmed because it is considered as fully born, and one life may not be taken to save another.
The Mishnah elsewhere states: “If a pregnant woman is taken out to be executed, one does not wait for her to give birth; but if her pains of parturition have already begun [lit. she has already sat on the birth stool], one waits for her until she gives birth.” One does not delay the execution of the mother in order to save the life of the fetus because the fetus is not yet a person (Heb. nefesh), and judgments in Judaism must be promptly implemented. The Talmud also explains that the embryo is part of the mother’s body and has no identity of its own, since it is dependent for its life upon the body of the woman. However, as soon as it starts to move from the womb, it is considered an autonomous being (nefesh) and thus unaffected by the mother’s state. This concept of the embryo being considered part of the mother and not a separate being recurs throughout the Talmud and rabbinic writings.
But given how often pregnant women and infants die in the bible, why pretend that the authors really cared about either? Genealogies don't even include all the kids, just the Plot Important ones (and not even then do all the names get their own stories). Most of the people in the bible, "potential" or otherwise, are just redshirts to be killed off when the plot demands.The only way to know what it "actually says" is to know how it was understood by the creator and the intended audience.
Exactly. I can't take any pro-"child" thing seriously when it demands bratty kids get killed off, you know, the ones that actually exist.[5] Death for Hitting Mom or Dad - "Whoever strikes his father or mother shall be put to death."(Exodus 21:15 NAB)
[6] Death for Cursing Parents - "All who curse their father or mother must be put to death. They are guilty of a capital offense." (Leviticus 20:9 NLT)
The one I keep leaning on? I'd recommend asking what I'm talking about before going off.There is more than one verse that talks about murder/murderers.I'd say that it's you taking scripture out of context - the one you keep leaning on here - "Thou shalt not kill."
Good for you, there isn't much left to discuss then; have fun with that.I would.
I did, you merely reject the one characterization of murder while accepting the vast majority my other ones. Also, I must have been too opaque in my response. Bringing up the Talmud and Jewish interpretation of Jewish law is without merit in regards to what Christians said in Christian scripture. Christian scripture in several instances brazenly disregards long standing Jewish understanding of the law, labor on the sabbath. In others, it flatly denigrates it, i.e. divorce. In others it replaces or removes broad swathes such as the dietary restrictions.Yep. And I think it's telling that you haven't actually given one yet.
Or because you aren't invested in the idea of bombing orphanages not being classed murder. Either way, you agree with me in principle that specific versions of a type of action not being singled out isn't grounds for dismissing as not prohibited.No, because it would be bizarre to assume, without other supporting information, that "you shall not murder" means "you shall not murder except by these particular methods."
I agree wholly. We need to know what the authors of Christian scripture meant when they wrote or referenced murder. Unfortunately, we weren't gifted with a comprehensive list, nor can we ask directly what the authorial intent was. What we can do is examine the reaction by the community that was the intended recipient. Something we see is that within the Christian community we get condemnation of abortion from the first century. Christians understood Christian scripture to prohibit abortion, and that is all that needs to be said.OTOH, we have to ask what sorts of killing they considered "murder."
Then why do you assiduously avoid the Christian period and Christian people and our historical response to our scripture?And for that, we go to sources from that group in that period.
Are you questioning my claim that the tradition of understanding murder in Christian scripture to encompass abortion goes back to the Didache?... and even if the Christians prohibited abortion early on (a claim you haven't actually supported yet, BTW)
Pfft. All you've shown that non-Christian interpretation of pre-Christian law considered abortion allowable. If you want to discuss if and why Jews care(d) about abortion, go for it.You haven't given any actual scripture to back up your claim, just an assumption that the Bible authors meant "murder" to include "abortion," but I just showed that this assumption was incorrect.
Do you have anything relevant? Or can you just go ahead and concede that there has always, that is as long as Christians have existed, been an understanding within the Christian community that when the Christian scriptures say or reference murder they include abortion.Do you have anything else?
That is a whole 'nother can of worms.But given how often pregnant women and infants die in the bible, why pretend that the authors really cared about either?