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Who was the "Us" at Gen 1:26?

lostwanderingsoul

Well-Known Member
“Let us make man in our image” (Genesis 1:26) is referring to God Almighty and Jesus.

God Almighty’s first creation was his “only-begotten Son” (John 3:16), “the beginning of the creation by God.” (Revelation 3:14) This one, “the firstborn of all creation,” was used by God in creating all other things, those in the heavens and those upon the earth, “the things visible and the things invisible.” (Colossians 1:15-17) John’s inspired testimony concerning this Son, the Word, is that “all things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence,” and the apostle identifies the Word as Jesus Christ, who had become flesh. (John 1:3, 10, 14) As wisdom personified, this One is represented as saying, “God himself produced me as the beginning of his way,” and he tells of his association with God the Creator as His “master worker.” (Proverbs 8:22-31) In view of the close association of God and his only-begotten Son in creative activity and because that Son is “the image of the invisible God”-Colossians 1:15; 2 Corinthians 4:4.
Except that the Word was with God at the beginning. So the Word was not created by God but was already there.
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
Depending on context and interpretations, "the Word" can have different meanings that relate to God in possibly different ways.

For example, "the Word" was spoken by God at creation, such as in "let there be light". "The Word" sometimes relates to the scriptures; sometimes to Jesus in the NT, etc. Since angels ("heavenly hosts") often do God's bidding, they also may be referred to as being of "the Word".

Point being is that it is a mistake to somehow interpret "the Word" too narrowly.
 

sooda

Veteran Member
“Let us make man in our image” (Genesis 1:26) is referring to God Almighty and Jesus.

God Almighty’s first creation was his “only-begotten Son” (John 3:16), “the beginning of the creation by God.” (Revelation 3:14) This one, “the firstborn of all creation,” was used by God in creating all other things, those in the heavens and those upon the earth, “the things visible and the things invisible.” (Colossians 1:15-17) John’s inspired testimony concerning this Son, the Word, is that “all things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence,” and the apostle identifies the Word as Jesus Christ, who had become flesh. (John 1:3, 10, 14) As wisdom personified, this One is represented as saying, “God himself produced me as the beginning of his way,” and he tells of his association with God the Creator as His “master worker.” (Proverbs 8:22-31) In view of the close association of God and his only-begotten Son in creative activity and because that Son is “the image of the invisible God”-Colossians 1:15; 2 Corinthians 4:4.

Elohim was initially what the children of the Canaanite God El were called. Scholars are using the much older Ugaritic texts from Ras Shamra to more accurately translate the ancient Hebrew, It shouldn't be threatening if you realize that religion evolved.. Judaism evolved.
 

sooda

Veteran Member
I'm not unfamiliar with the bible. It refers to a god who's almighty, which is simply the Anglo-Saxon equivalent of omnipotent. And once you're omnipotent, you can be omniscient, omnipresent and perfect with one snap of those fingers, no? Or three, at most.

What other part of the bible do you say is relevant here?

I don't understand why "omniscient and omnipresent" are suddenly issues.
 

blü 2

Veteran Member
Premium Member
I don't understand why "omniscient and omnipresent" are suddenly issues.
The omni god ─ omnipotent, omniscient, omnipresent and perfect ─ in making the universe must necessarily have perfectly foreseen everything that will ever happen in that universe, down to the finest detail, and therefore by making the universe has already demonstrated [his] approval of everything that will ever happen, and [his] intention that it happen. In particular no human ─ nor any atomic particle ─ can diverge in even the tiniest degree from what [he] perfectly foresaw. Therefore there can be no such thing as theological free will. (Indeed there doesn't appear to be any way that will can be authentically free.)

A god who was omnipotent but not omniscient, not omnipresent, and not perfect, would not have that foreknowledge. [He]'d have been launching the universe as a shot in the dark.

BUT being omnipotent, [he] could become omniscient, omnipresent and perfect at any time with a snap of those omnipotent fingers.

You're right, omnipresent isn't essential; however, it means not only that God perfectly foresaw everything that will ever happen, but since omnipresence includes time as well as space has already been personally present when every single event in our universe happened, happens and will happen.
 
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sooda

Veteran Member
The omni god ─ omnipotent, omniscient, omnipresent and perfect ─ in making the universe must necessarily have perfectly foreseen everything that will ever happen in that universe, down to the finest detail, and therefore by making the universe has already demonstrated [his] approval of everything that will ever happen, and [his] intention that it happen. In particular no human ─ nor any atomic particle ─ can diverge in even the tiniest degree from what [he] perfectly foresaw. Therefore there can be no such thing as theological free will. (Indeed there doesn't appear to be any way that will can be authentically free.)

A god who was omnipotent but not omniscient, not omnipresent, and not perfect, would not have that foreknowledge. [He]'d have been launching the universe as a shot in the dark.

BUT being omnipotent, [he] could become omniscient, omnipresent and perfect at any time with a snap of those omnipotent fingers.

You're right, omnipresent isn't essential; however, it means not only that God perfectly foresaw everything that will ever happen, but since omnipresence includes time as well as space has already been personally present when every single event in our universe happened, happens and will happen.

Can't have it both ways. If Jesus says in John 8:58, "Before Abraham was, I am." God is omniscient, omnipresent etc.
 

blü 2

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Can't have it both ways. If Jesus says in John 8:58, "Before Abraham was, I am." God is omniscient, omnipresent etc.
Before Abraham was, I am, is an assertion that the author of John's Jesus pre-existed in heaven with God:

John 1:2 He was in the beginning with God; 3 all things were made through him, and without him was not anything made that was made.​

There are two gnostic Jesuses, the other being Paul's,

1 Corinthian 8:6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.​

So as you can see, each of them, on the gnostic model and unlike the synoptic Jesuses, created the material universe in the role of demiurge.

So I'd suggest "Before Abraham was, I am" is a statement about Jesus, and not about God.
 

Ebionite

Well-Known Member
I don't understand why "omniscient and omnipresent" are suddenly issues.

They have built also the high places of Baal, to burn their sons with fire for burnt offerings unto Baal, which I commanded not, nor spake it, neither came it into my mind:
Jeremiah 19:5

And Cain went out from the presence of YHWH, and dwelt in the land of Nod, on the east of Eden.
Genesis 4:16
 

sooda

Veteran Member
They have built also the high places of Baal, to burn their sons with fire for burnt offerings unto Baal, which I commanded not, nor spake it, neither came it into my mind:
Jeremiah 19:5

And Cain went out from the presence of YHWH, and dwelt in the land of Nod, on the east of Eden.
Genesis 4:16

The Jews have always bashed the neighbors .. Judea even based Israel... and all were eager to forget their Canaanite roots.
 
“Let us make man in our image” (Genesis 1:26) is referring to God Almighty and Jesus.

God Almighty’s first creation was his “only-begotten Son” (John 3:16), “the beginning of the creation by God.” (Revelation 3:14) This one, “the firstborn of all creation,” was used by God in creating all other things, those in the heavens and those upon the earth, “the things visible and the things invisible.” (Colossians 1:15-17) John’s inspired testimony concerning this Son, the Word, is that “all things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence,” and the apostle identifies the Word as Jesus Christ, who had become flesh. (John 1:3, 10, 14) As wisdom personified, this One is represented as saying, “God himself produced me as the beginning of his way,” and he tells of his association with God the Creator as His “master worker.”-Proverbs 8:22-31
 

1213

Well-Known Member
Was God talking to 'Themselves'?
No one else was there?

I believe it was this group:

God presides in the great assembly. He judges among the gods.
Psalms 82:1

I said, "You are gods, All of you are sons of the Most High. Nevertheless you shall die like men, And fall like one of the rulers."
Psalms 82:6-7
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Regarding "Who was the "US" in Genesis 1:26.

The early Judeo-Christian literature indicates that God the Father was speaking to the son when saying "Let us....."

For example, Barnabas explains “For the Scripture speaks about us when he says to the Son: “Let us make man according to our image and likeness, … These things he said to the Son.” The Epistle of Barnabas 6:12;

If it is not clear that Jesus (as the “word”) was in the beginning WITH God, Barnabas repeats this same point in 5:5 “…he is Lord of the whole world, to whom God said at the foundation of the world, “Let us make man according to our image and likeness, how is it, then, that he submitted to suffer at the hands of men.?“ The Epistle of Barnabas

Even Jewish Enoch gives us the same testimony that John 1:1 gives concerning “the Word was in the beginning WITH God“. Jewish Enoch describes the Word as the “son of man” who was WITH the Lord of Spirits (i.e. God the Father of spirits). The text reads : … that Son of Man was given a name, in the presence of the Lord of the Spirits, the beginning of days, 3 even before the creation of the sun and the moon, before the creation of the stars, he was given a name in the presence of the Lord of the Spirits. 4 He will become a staff for the righteous ones in order that they may lean on him and not fall. He is the light of the gentiles and he will become the hope of those who are sick in their hearts. 5 All those who dwell upon the earth shall fall and worship before him: they shall glorify, bless, and sing the name of the Lord of the Spirits. 6 For this purpose he became the Chosen One…” 1st Enoch 48:1-7;


In any case, I hope you are able to come to your own understanding and model as to what you believe.

Clear
τωδρτζειω
 

IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
Regarding "Who was the "US" in Genesis 1:26.
God had already created his heavenly court. He was speaking to THAT. It is a longstanding tradition, according to this verse, that these angelic beings assisted God in the creation.
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
IndigoChild5559 said : It is a longstanding tradition, according to this verse, that these angelic beings assisted God in the creation." (post #138)

Hi @IndigoChild5559

While I am somewhat familiar with this base claim, Can you give us your actual data underlying your theory that angels assisted God in creation of this world? I have a few questions regarding this tradition.

thanks

Clear
τωφιδρδρω
 
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