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Who created the Jehovahs Witness Bible and by what process was it created?

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
post three of three

7) THE CONSEQUENCES OF CHANGING THE TEXT TO FIT MANS’ INTERPRETATION TO SUPPORT A PERSONAL THEOLOGY


For example, we are discussing the timing of the change in Lucifer from a loyal angel of God to an enemy of God. I have given 5 posts of examples from early Christian texts describing the episode where the angel Lucifer becomes an enemy to God before he meets Adam and Eve in the Garden of Eden (having been cast out of heaven with other hosts of heaven).

IF the Jehovahs Witnesses believe the bible shows Satan has not yet been cast out of heaven, but instead, the Devil was cast out of heaven just after October 1st, 1914, why not simply change the translation to fit this opinion if one should, as you say, translate the bible according to what it means to the Jehovahs Witness’?

The greek of Luke 10:18 says “ …εθεωρουν τον σαταναν ως αστραπην εκ του ουρανου πεσοντα.

In english Jesus says (past tense) “…I beheld Satan as lightning fall from heaven.” (Lk 10:18)

If your theory on "translation" should be done according to what the text actually means to the translators, then one may pay no attention to grammar, or tenses, or historical context and the Jehovahs Witnesses may then "translate" the text thusly : “…I will behold Satan as lightening, fall from heaven sometime after October 1st 1914.” (NWT lk 10:18) since this may be more consistent with Jehovahs Witness doctrine than what Jesus actually said.

I actually think that you are correct in using this model that Franz “translated” according to what he personally though the verse should have said. He seems to be simply placing his theological beliefs onto the text as a working model of how the text changed so much between the Greek and the New World Translation.

Pegg, If you have another model of what Franz was doing that explains his departure from the Greek in the New Testament, I am interested in hearing your theory as to why these departures exist. If you don’t have any other theories on this point, this is also ok. It also explains the insertion of so many "Jehovahs" in the text where it never existed and should not have been added.


Clear
εισεσεω
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
post three of three

7) THE CONSEQUENCES OF CHANGING THE TEXT TO FIT MANS’ INTERPRETATION TO SUPPORT A PERSONAL THEOLOGY


For example, we are discussing the timing of the change in Lucifer from a loyal angel of God to an enemy of God. I have given 5 posts of examples from early Christian texts describing the episode where the angel Lucifer becomes an enemy to God before he meets Adam and Eve in the Garden of Eden (having been cast out of heaven with other hosts of heaven).

IF the Jehovahs Witnesses believe the bible shows Satan has not yet been cast out of heaven, but instead, the Devil was cast out of heaven just after October 1st, 1914, why not simply change the translation to fit this opinion if one should, as you say, translate the bible according to what it means to the Jehovahs Witness’?

The greek of Luke 10:18 says “ …εθεωρουν τον σαταναν ως αστραπην εκ του ουρανου πεσοντα.

In english Jesus says (past tense) “…I beheld Satan as lightning fall from heaven.” (Lk 10:18)

If your theory on "translation" should be done according to what the text actually means to the translators, then one may pay no attention to grammar, or tenses, or historical context and the Jehovahs Witnesses may then "translate" the text thusly : “…I will behold Satan as lightening, fall from heaven sometime after October 1st 1914.” (NWT lk 10:18) since this may be more consistent with Jehovahs Witness doctrine than what Jesus actually said.

No, its not necessary in every situation and I think you 've just shown that we have not altered the text of the bible to suit our teachings.
Prophecies are often spoken of in past tense because that is a peculiarity with the hebrew language... the future is spoken of in past tense because prophecy is something that is seen as if it has already happened.

So its good that you've pointed out that our NWT bible has not been changed to sound more in line with our teaching. Thanks for recognising that.


Pegg, If you have another model of what Franz was doing that explains his departure from the Greek in the New Testament, I am interested in hearing your theory as to why these departures exist. If you don’t have any other theories on this point, this is also ok. It also explains the insertion of so many "Jehovahs" in the text where it never existed and should not have been added.


Clear
εισεσεω

Do you have any specific examples you would like to discuss?

The insertion of the name Jehovah is found in every single verse where the Tetragrammaton appears. In whatever bible you are using, the translators (if they are at least a little honest) will capitalise the words 'LORD' or 'GOD' if the original text contains the four hebrew characters representing Gods personal name YHWH.
Many people read through their bible and see the capitalised "LORD' and 'GOD' but dont understand the significance of its capitalisation.

In the Greek scriptures, the name of God appears in every verse which is a quote from the hebrew scriptures. If the hebrew scripture contains the tetragrammaton, then we have ensured that the name of God appears in the new testament verse because if you quote from the hebrew scriptures where the name appears, it is only logical that you would have been quoting the tetragrammaton found in the verse.
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Pegg, thank you for the information you have offered me. I appreciate you efforts.

Clear
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Post one of two

Pegg
Said “. So its good that you've pointed out that our NWT bible has not been changed to sound more in line with our teaching. Thanks for recognising that. “ (post # 22)


Forum members : My conscience bothers me to leave the above “conclusion” without a correction. It feels dishonest on my part if I didn’t point out this conclusion does NOT, in any way, represent the points I made in my prior posts. I was simply too busy to return to this specific point.

For examples Pegg herself, offered us an example of Matthew 5:3 in the Jehovah’s Witness Bible which Frederick Franz created. My point was that Franz, who had insufficient language training to create a bible, defaces the text by many of his changes which he makes to biblical text.

Pegg suggested that Franz was simply gave the Jehovahs Witness Bible the “meaning” the text had for him. I think this is an accurate model of what he did, but then it simply means that he changed the text to support his beliefs. THIS is the point I was trying to make when I pointed out why this type of changes made to biblical text creates errors in the bible that Franz created.

If you read my points, they do NOT support the conclusion that the text is "unchanged" : For example, I said :
The problem of adding to and taking away from biblical text and the meaning of the text

Clear asked Pegg (post # 17) “Whose personal and subjective meaning of biblical verses do we use to create an objective and standard bible?

The greek “means” something different to Frederick Franz, (the Jehovahs Witness who created their bible) than to Luther, or Jerome or to other translators who have a different context and belief. This is partly why we cannot leave the text for insertions of personal theology in translation. The greek means something different to the Jehovahs Witness Frederick Franz who had only a 3 semester hour course in biblical greek than it means to an actual biblical scholar like Gerhard Aland or to Hort, or to Tischendorf, etc.

Perhaps, to help demonstrate the difference between what Frederick Franz did and what authentic biblical translators did in this verse, we can look at two simple sets of words, one set we have bias toward, and another set that we are blind to context. You say that you create your definitions from “scholars” (though I would argue that the man who created the Jehovahs Witness bible could hardly BE a biblical language “scholar” having had only a 3 semester hour introductory course in biblical greek…).

What does πτωχοι mean to the scholars Pegg?

Pegg responded (post # 18) No, im not going to debate greek words with you. Nor am I going to follow you down the path of criticizing someones education. (not that brother Franz was solely responsible for the translation of the NWT)

THIS IS WHY I SUGGESTED THAT WE USE PEGGS RULE OF USING THE SCHOLARS DEFINITIONS (Which Frederick Franz himself failed to do in creating his bible in our example (Matt 5:3). I said:
Pegg, there is no need to “debate greek words” at all. You claimed that you take your meanings of words “from the scholars” and I am perfectly happy with that philosophy. We can even use your references from Vines if you prefer.

For examples :

We could use Thayer's Definition for πτωχός
reduced to beggary, begging, asking alms, destitute of wealth, influence, position, honour, lowly, afflicted, destitute of the Christian virtues and eternal riches,helpless, powerless to accomplish an end,
poor, needy
lacking in anything
as respects their spirit

  1. destitute of wealth of learning and intellectual culture which the schools afford (men of this class most readily give themselves up to Christ's teaching and proved them selves fitted to lay hold of the heavenly treasure)

Or we could use Strong's Definition for πτωχός
From πτώσσω ptōssō (to crouch; akin to G4422 and the alternate of G4098); a beggar (as cringing), that is, pauper (strictly denoting absolute or public mendicancy, although also used in a qualified or relative sense; whereas G3993 properly means only straitened circumstances in private), literally (often as noun) or figuratively (distressed): - beggar (-ly), poor.

We can use Abbots, or Moultons, or Milligans, etc. Or we could use Vines definition since you’ve used that and seem to like it as a lexionary. Why don’t you give us your definition from Vines?
NONE OF THIS INDICATES THAT I AGREE THAT FREDERICK FRANZ DID NOT CHANGE THE BIBLICAL TEXT.

Post two of two follows
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
post two of two


When I pointed out that the Jehovah’s Witness history itself shows that no other member of the “translation committee” had significant knowledge and skill in Hebrew or biblical greek, this also does not mean I think the bible he created was correct, but instead, was more reasoning why I believe the committee was a facade in the creation of a defaced text.

My comments on Franz’s method of “creating scripture”, was (also) further data and reasoning why I think he did NOT leave the biblical text intact, but instead, simply placed his theology into the bible he created. For example, I said:
5) A STUDY OF FRANZ'S METHOD OF CREATING SCRIPTURE

If you remember, I initially wondered how the New Word Translation was created with so many, many unusual, clumsy, unnatural and erroneous points in it’s “translation”. You did not want to tell me so I looked it up. (Anyone may google “New World Translation committee”).

The data showed 5 Leading Jehovahs Witnesses were on this committee.

A further historical search revealed that only one man, Frederick Franz possessed ancient sufficient language skills to be able to “translate” from any ancient version in either greek or Hebrew.

A further historical search revealed that Frederick Franz had never taken ANY Hebrew in ANY college, but was trying to teach himself Hebrew. I did NOT think this qualified him to create a bible from Hebrew, but I DO think he was admirable and diligent and was a good example for the rest of us in his as to how we can seen to become better scholars. What he was doing in this educational attempt was admirable, not shameful.

A further historical search revealed that Frederick Franz had only taken a 3 hour introductory course in biblical greek, that is, the specific greek language that the New Testament (and greek Old Testament) were written in. I did NOT think this qualified him to create a bible from Greek manuscripts.

You were the one who finally told us that Franz took an English bible (Wescott Hort translation) and the committee then changed the words of this base text to create a bible for Jehovahs Witnesses.

Given these points, my question still remains as to how he decided to change certain verses to support his theology when his ability to translate even simple verses was so minimal.
I gave an example how Franz’s habit of simply inserting his own philosophy into his bible resulted in a defacement and inaccurate translation of this example text : I said :
6) WHY WE ARE DISCUSSING MATTHEW 5:3 RATHER THAN ANY OTHER VERSE

YOU were the one who provided Matthew 5:3 as an example of Franz’ wonderful translation skills.

I thought it was a GOOD verse to start examining since it was another example of the many “strange translations” of greek. It simply doesn’t reflect the greek words and it represents one of many types of departure from authentic Greek biblical manuscripts that I described he was making. It was also a very, very simple verse.

Although it may seem uncomfortable to discuss this very simply verse of Matthew 5:3, I can guarantee it does not get easier to discuss the more complicated and unusual renderings Franz came up with in other verses.

As a VERY, VERY simple example, the greek of Matthew 5:3 reads :
"Blessed are the poor in spirit..." RSVbible

Μακαριοιοι πτωχοι τω πνευματι…” Which Franz “translates” :

Happy [are] those conscious of their [spiritual] need….” = New World Translation

The rendering of οι πτωχοι as “those who are conscious of their need” is incredibly unusual and does not exist in any lexicon or greek dictionary that I’ve ever seen.

You say you take such definitions from Scholars, but no scholar uses or has suggested this working definition in any greek lexicon.

Did Franz do this simply because he did not know the greek?

Was he following another translators mistake?

Was he inserting his own philosophy and interpretation into this sentence in the place of actual translation?

Did he know it was incorrect but did not care.

Whatever it was, there is some reason why Franz rendered the verse in this manner.

For example, IF Franz is assuming the word πτωχοιare “the poor” (e.g. instead of “the powerless”, “the needy”, “the destitute”, “the crouching”, etc).

None of these words add the quality of “consciousness” or unconsciousness; “awareness” or unaware, “infant (i.e. unaware)” or adult (potentially aware); “intelligent” or unintelligent, “living or dead, past or present or future.

The πτωχοι are a class who "lack". The concept of being "conscious" (or unconscious) of lack is not in the words' definition but must be added by another word.

Though Peggs post semantically concluded my examples “supported” the Jehovahs Witness claim that Franz’s bible shows the text wasn’t changed, obviously, the stated conclusion is opposite of what my examples clearly show.

I then pointed out that many scholars have made the complaint point regarding such changes in biblical text and the consequences of such poor translations. I pointed out the errors that may creep into texts if one simply places their own interpretation into the text rather than translating the text according to the actual meaning of the text itself.

Obviously, the conclusion Pegg chose to describe from my multiple posts is an inaccurate caricature of what I said. I have been too busy to comment until now, but my conscience would have bothered me had I not tried to clear up this point regarding my posts and their obvious meaning.


Clear
διδιειω
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
THIS IS WHY I SUGGESTED THAT WE USE PEGGS RULE OF USING THE SCHOLARS DEFINITIONS (Which Frederick Franz himself failed to do in creating his bible in our example (Matt 5:3). I said:NONE OF THIS INDICATES THAT I AGREE THAT FREDERICK FRANZ DID NOT CHANGE THE BIBLICAL TEXT.

Post two of two follows

hi clear,

I was replying to your comment:
"IF the Jehovahs Witnesses believe the bible shows Satan has not yet been cast out of heaven, but instead, the Devil was cast out of heaven just after October 1st, 1914, why not simply change the translation to fit this opinion if one should, as you say, translate the bible according to what it means to the Jehovahs Witness’?
Is this not an evidence that out bible has not been rewritten to fit our teaching?
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Clear said : “ "IF the Jehovahs Witnesses believe the bible shows Satan has not yet been cast out of heaven, but instead, the Devil was cast out of heaven just after October 1st, 1914, why not simply change the translation to fit this opinion if one should, as you say, translate the bible according to what it means to the Jehovahs Witness’?

Pegg asked : “ Is this not an evidence that out bible has not been rewritten to fit our teaching?


No, it is not.

In context of Franz’s paraphrasing of Matthew 5:3, my comment was simply another example of how errors are created when individuals paraphrase their own theology into a text they create, rather than creating an actual translation of a text.

You suggested a textual translator should interpret a text according to what the text means to them. I was pointing out why your suggested process creates many more arbitrary errors in the text than to simply translate the text according to what the text itself actually says.

I had already given examples of inaccurate translation by Franz, using your example of Matthew 5:3 and Franz’s inability to “translate” this simple text correctly. You said the Jehovah’s witnesses derived word meaning from scholars, yet, as I showed, Franz does NOT take his “translation” from any standard lexical definitions in the example you offered us (Matt 5:3).

No Pegg, a simple partial quote, taken out of context inside a sea of counter evidence will not support your claim. It even felt dishonest to me, to leave this “conclusion” you offered forum readers, without an honest clarification.

Clear
δρφυτζω
 
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Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
Clear said : “ "IF the Jehovahs Witnesses believe the bible shows Satan has not yet been cast out of heaven, but instead, the Devil was cast out of heaven just after October 1st, 1914, why not simply change the translation to fit this opinion if one should, as you say, translate the bible according to what it means to the Jehovahs Witness’?

Pegg asked : “ Is this not an evidence that out bible has not been rewritten to fit our teaching?


No, it is not.

In context of Franz’s paraphrasing of Matthew 5:3, my comment was simply another example of how errors are created when individuals paraphrase their own theology into a text they create, rather than creating an actual translation of a text.

Happy are those conscious of their spiritual need, since the Kingdom of the heavens belongs to them." NWT


You admitted that the word 'happy' can be used based on the context. For example, you said:

"You misunderstand. I have no objection to rendering “μακαροι" as reference those who are “happy” or those who are “blessed”. As I demonstrated in post # 13, the word can be used correctly in either case depending upon context. "

And our verse in Matt 5:3 uses the word 'happy' because of the context.

You suggested a textual translator should interpret a text according to what the text means to them. I was pointing out why your suggested process creates many more arbitrary errors in the text than to simply translate the text according to what the text itself actually says.

There is no modern language which exactly mirrors the vocabulary and grammar of Biblical Hebrew, Aramaic, or koine Greek, so a word-for-word translation just isnt helpful to understanding what the ancient writers were trying to convey. And as we've seen in the example of Matt 5:3, the original language word can be translated by more then one english word. So translation is not a clear case of making a word-for-word translation. Its more complicated then that.


I had already given examples of inaccurate translation by Franz, using your example of Matthew 5:3 and Franz’s inability to “translate” this simple text correctly. You said the Jehovah’s witnesses derived word meaning from scholars, yet, as I showed, Franz does NOT take his “translation” from any standard lexical definitions in the example you offered us (Matt 5:3).

No Pegg, a simple partial quote, taken out of context inside a sea of counter evidence will not support your claim. It even felt dishonest to me, to leave this “conclusion” you offered forum readers, without an honest clarification.

Clear
δρφυτζω

You call it inacurate, but i dont think you've taken all things into consideration. For example, you said the 'context' can affect which english word is used to translate Matt5:3 - it could be happy or it could be blessed depending on the context and few other bible translations also use the word 'happy' in this verse.

the word is translated 'happy' as opposed to 'blessed' by YLT, AMP has a footnote indicating 'happy' is an alternative rendering,
Common english bible uses 'happy'
ERV reads "Great blessings belong to those who know they are spiritually in need." Matt 5:3
Expanded Bible reads "....realize their spiritual poverty"
Good news translation: "Happy are those who know they are spiritually poor"
Phillips bible reads: "Happy are those who know they are spiritually poor"
New Living Translation; "... those who are poor and realize their need for him"
NIRV reads: "Blessed are those who are spiritually needy".
Worldwide English reads: " God makes happy those who know that they need him."

All of these translators have at least one of the elements of the meaning of the expression correct...

Now look at the NWT: "Happy are those conscious of their spiritual need" The NWT has 'ALL' the elements of the meaning of the verse correct.

I think you are completely wrong in your criticism of this verse.
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
1) Habitual hiding in irrelevant issues can only serve to confuse readers.

Pegg
said : “You admitted that the word 'happy' can be used based on the context. “

Not only did I admit this, but I gave you multiple examples from early koine as to why “happy” was perfectly acceptable. This was never an error and I was never opposed to using those who are "happy" as μακαροι.

Pegg, your constant referrals to irrelevants issues can only serve to confuse readers as to the actual issues at hand. You can run from this issue, but you cannot hide from anyone who has been following the issues closely. The present point was that Franz made erred in translating simple words such as Πτοχοι (the poor) in this case. His use of the "happy" was clumsy, but it was not incorrect. You have spent another post on an irrelevant issue.

If you are confused about what we are discussing, then it might help you to re-read our prior discussion before responding. If you are simply wanting to confuse issues for readers, it is counterproductive to accurate communication (assuming accurate communication is what you want....)

My last post using the verse YOU suggested was :

POST # 19 ; CLEAR SAID : start quote
The problem of adding to and taking away from biblical text and the meaning of the text

Clear asked Pegg (post # 17) “Whose personal and subjective meaning of biblical verses do we use to create an objective and standard bible?

The greek “means” something different to Frederick Franz, (the Jehovahs Witness who created their bible) than to Luther, or Jerome or to other translators who have a different context and belief. This is partly why we cannot leave the text for insertions of personal theology in translation. The greek means something different to the Jehovahs Witness Frederick Franz who had only a 3 semester hour course in biblical greek than it means to an actual biblical scholar like Gerhard Aland or to Hort, or to Tischendorf, etc.

Perhaps, to help demonstrate the difference between what Frederick Franz did and what authentic biblical translators did in this verse, we can look at two simple sets of words, one set we have bias toward, and another set that we are blind to context. You say that you create your definitions from “scholars” (though I would argue that the man who created the Jehovahs Witness bible could hardly BE a biblical language “scholar” having had only a 3 semester hour introductory course in biblical greek…).

What does πτωχοι mean to the scholars Pegg?


Pegg responded (post # 18) No, im not going to debate greek words with you. Nor am I going to follow you down the path of criticizing someones education. (not that brother Franz was solely responsible for the translation of the NWT)


Pegg, there is no need to “debate greek words” at all. You claimed that you take your meanings of words “from the scholars” and I am perfectly happy with that philosophy. We can even use your references from Vines if you prefer.

For examples :

We could use Thayer's Definition for πτωχός
reduced to beggary, begging, asking alms, destitute of wealth, influence, position, honour, lowly, afflicted, destitute of the Christian virtues and eternal riches,helpless, powerless to accomplish an end,
poor, needy
lacking in anything
as respects their spirit


  1. destitute of wealth of learning and intellectual culture which the schools afford (men of this class most readily give themselves up to Christ's teaching and proved them selves fitted to lay hold of the heavenly treasure)


Or we could use Strong's Definition for πτωχός
From πτώσσω ptōssō (to crouch; akin to G4422 and the alternate of G4098); a beggar (as cringing), that is, pauper (strictly denoting absolute or public mendicancy, although also used in a qualified or relative sense; whereas G3993 properly means only straitened circumstances in private), literally (often as noun) or figuratively (distressed): - beggar (-ly), poor.

We can use Abbots, or Moultons, or Milligans, etc. Or we could use Vines definition since you’ve used that and seem to like it as a lexionary. Why don’t you give us your definition from Vines?


B) REGARDING WHETHER ANY OTHER MEMBER OF THE “TRANSLATION COMMITTEE” HAD ANY SIGNIFICANT KNOWLEDGE AND SKILL IN TRANSLATING FROM HEBREW OR GREEK

Pegg, you seem to want to change the historical description that no other but Franz on this committee had any significant knowledge and skill to translate or determine a translation from either Hebrew or Greek as being either correct or incorrect. If you wish to contradict the general board member Raymond Franz’ conclusion on this point, now is the time to do it. You could be correct, and some very simple data would correct this point if you want to offer it here.

Pegg, IF any of the other four members on the Jehovahs Witness “translation Committee” had any significant language background and ability that would qualify them to create a bible, PLEASE let us know this since the current historical information available to me shows no other person on this committee either had, or felt they had sufficient skills in ancient language to translate and create a bible.

Pegg, as a Jehovahs Witness, you are better qualified to answer and correct this point than myself since I am simply referring to general J.W. board member Raymond Franz' written description that none of the board members but Frederick Franz were qualified to translate from Biblical Greek or Hebrew. Are you aware of ANY linguistic ability in any other member than Frederick Franz that would have qualified the other members to translate and create a bible ?



6) WHY WE ARE DISCUSSING MATTHEW 5:3 RATHER THAN ANY OTHER VERSE

YOU were the one who provided Matthew 5:3 as an example of Franz’ wonderful translation skills.

I thought it was a GOOD verse to start examining since it was another example of the many “strange translations” of greek. It simply doesn’t reflect the greek words and it represents one of many types of departure from authentic Greek biblical manuscripts that I described he was making. It was also a very, very simple verse.

Although it may seem uncomfortable to discuss this very simply verse of Matthew 5:3, I can guarantee it does not get easier to discuss the more complicated and unusual renderings Franz came up with in other verses.

As a VERY, VERY simple example, the greek of Matthew 5:3 reads :

"Blessed are the poor in spirit..." RSVbible

Μακαριοιοι πτωχοι τω πνευματι…” Which Franz “translates” :

Happy [are] those conscious of their [spiritual] need….” = New World Translation

The rendering of οι πτωχοι as “those who are conscious of their need” is incredibly unusual and does not exist in any lexicon or greek dictionary that I’ve ever seen.

You say you take such definitions from Scholars, but no scholar uses or has suggested this working definition in any greek lexicon.

Did Franz do this simply because he did not know the greek?

Was he following another translators mistake?

Was he inserting his own philosophy and interpretation into this sentence in the place of actual translation?

Did he know it was incorrect but did not care.

Whatever it was, there is some reason why Franz rendered the verse in this manner.

For example, IF Franz is assuming the word πτωχοι are “the poor” (e.g. instead of “the powerless”, “the needy”, “the destitute”, “the crouching”, etc).

None of these words add the quality of “consciousness” or unconsciousness; “awareness” or unaware, “infant (i.e. unaware)” or adult (potentially aware); “intelligent” or unintelligent, “living or dead, past or present or future.

The πτωχοι are a class who "lack". The concept of being "conscious" (or unconscious) of lack is not in the words' definition but must be added by another word.

end quote

As readers can see, the specific error we were discussing was how Franz used the concept of πτοχοι (the poor).

You said the Jehovahs Witnesses used the definitions from scholars. What do the Scholars of Koine Greek say that πτοχοι means?

If NONE of the scholars and NO lexicon and NO papyral or early textual evidence renders it as a type of consciousness, then why did Franz go off in such a strange direction so as to leave accurate translation? It is these very bizarre type of paraphrasing that seem to be typical of Franz's use of Greek in his creation of the New World Paraphrase of the Bible.

Clear
δρσισεω
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
Im not uncomfortable using Matt 5;3 at all.
In fact, i'd like to know what you think the verse is saying...what is its meaning according to how you read it?


Here are some commentaries on the verse which shows that the NWT has rendered it most accurately:

3. Blessed—Of the two words which our translators render "blessed," the one here used points more to what is inward, and so might be rendered "happy," in a lofty sense;

Blessed are the poor in spirit—All familiar with Old Testament phraseology know how frequently God's true people are styled "the poor" (the "oppressed," "afflicted," "miserable") or "the needy"—or both together (as in Ps 40:17; Isa 41:17). The explanation of this lies in the fact that it is generally "the poor of this world" who are "rich in faith" (Jas 2:5; compare 2Co 6:10; Re 2:9); .... But since God's people are in so many places styled "the poor" and "the needy," with no evident reference to their temporal circumstances (as in Ps 68:10; 69:29-33; 132:15; Isa 61:1; 66:2), it is plainly a frame of mind which those terms are meant to express. Accordingly, our translators sometimes render such words "the humble" (Ps 10:12, 17), "the meek" (Ps 22:26), "the lowly" (Pr 3:34), as having no reference to outward circumstances. But here the explanatory words, "in spirit," fix the sense to "those who in their deepest consciousness realize their entire need" (compare the Greek of Lu 10:21; Joh 11:33; 13:21; Ac 20:22; Ro 12:11; 1Co 5:3; Php 3:3).​

There are many more commentaries on this verse which give the idea that the 'poor in spirit' are those who recognize their need for Gods help and so put themselves out to recieve Gods mercy. They are 'beggers' for the spirit of God and they receive it which makes them internally happy.

If you are examining the verse honestly, then you would have to admit that the NWT is the best rendering of what the verse actually means... it gives us the most correct idea of what Jesus was telling us.
 
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Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Pegg :


1) A translation is different than a commentary.

Offering forum readers examples from commentaries which discuss metaphorical meanings and philosophy, applications, etc, of a text is not the same as the specific process of translating the text being commented upon. Your confusion about these processes may be what Frederick Franz did in his attempts to be a translator and create a bible that supported his theology. It would also explain some of the unusual renderings in his bible.


2) Consider the process of translating a basic text

Pegg said : “i'd like to know what you think the verse is saying...what is its meaning according to how you read it?

Matthew 5:3 reads : “…οι πτωχοι τω πνευματι .” And there are no variants in GN4.

KJV rendered this : “ …the poor in spirit…” - I think the KJV is a perfectly fine rendering of the text. Grammatical τω has a subscripted iota and is in dative singular. πτοχοι is rendered "poor" and πνευματι is rendered "spirit".

Lexical πτοχοιis the specific translational issue we discussed in this verse.

Franz rendered this : “ those conscious of their spiritual need.”.
τω becomes genitive and πτοχοι becomes a "consciousness of need"

You claimed that Jehovah’s Witnesses take meanings of words “from the scholars” and I am perfectly happy with that philosophy. I said that we could even use your references from Vines if you prefer.

For examples :

If you use Thayer's Definition for πτωχός it will say it means :

reduced to beggary, begging, asking alms, destitute of wealth, influence, position, honour, lowly, afflicted, destitute of the Christian virtues and eternal riches,helpless, powerless to accomplish an end, poor, needy, lacking in anything as respects their spirit

Nothing here creates a "consciousness of need", merely the lack itself.

If you use Strong's Definition for πτωχός, it will say it means :

From πτώσσω ptōssō (to crouch; akin to G4422 and the alternate of G4098); a beggar (as cringing), that is, pauper (strictly denoting absolute or public mendicancy, although also used in a qualified or relative sense; whereas G3993 properly means only straitened circumstances in private), literally (often as noun) or figuratively (distressed): - beggar (-ly), poor.

Nothing here creates a sense of consciousness of need, merely the lack of need.

You can use Abbots, or Moultons, or Milligans, etc. (Or, as I said, you can use Vines definition since you’ve used that and seem to like it as a lexionary.) Why don’t you give us your definition from Vines? See if any of them give a consciousness of need as a definition of πτοχοισ.

IF a translator doesn’t inject their own theology into the translation; doesn’t inappropriately use the text to further their personal religious theory; doesn’t create a commentary of what the text means to them personally, and doesn’t inject that into the text; doesn’t play any semantic games; THEN, and in that case, what does the word πτοχοις mean?

3) Franz offered commentary on meaning, rather than offering a translation

Again, I think your post gave us forum readers an inadvertent example of what Frederick Franz actually did, that is, he is offered us his personal commentary on the text, rather than offering us an accurate translation of the text. This is NOT to say he did not create some accurate, even good renderings, merely that he created many unusual and even bizarre changes to the text that (probably) came from a process of "commentary", rather than "translation". Since he had no real training AS a translator, and since his biblical greek consisted of an introductory course to biblical greek (his other lower level college greek coursed were "classical" Greek), I expect these types of errors could hardly be avoided.

I do NOT assume Frederick Franz was a "bad" person in this process of creating a bible for the Jehovah's Witnesses. Rather I assume he was a very good person who was trying to do what he thought was right by creating a biblical text that was supportive of his theological position. This is similar to what all of us tend to do in viewing the theological world through our own biases. Most of us create interpretations of the text that support our position and Frederick Franz created a text that supported his position.

Clear
δρσενεω
 
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Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
I dont know why you are calling the NWT a 'commentary' .... its not.

Bible translation involves more than simply rendering an original-language word with the same term each time it occurs. And not even the KJV translators do that... for example, the way they render the hebrew word 'sheol' (literally meaning grave) is not always translated as grave...they use the word 'pit', 'hell' and 'grave' at different locations.

The work of a translator is to select words in the target language that best represent the ideas of the original-language text. The foward of the NWT states:
“We offer no paraphrase of the Scriptures. Our endeavor all through has been to give as literal a translation as possible, where the modern English idiom allows and where a literal rendition does not for any clumsiness hide the thought.
In otherwords, if a phrase in the original language makes little sense in our language, then the 'thought' is conveyed.
Thats what you are reading at Matt 5:3... its the idea Jesus presented which we wouldnt necessarily understand if it was written as 'poor in spirit'
As many of the commentaries show, 'poor in spirit' means those people who know or have an awareness of their lowly position and their need to receive Gods spirit and mercy. A literal word-for-word translation will not give you the idea the phrases intends.

Ellicotts commentary says:
'....Here the blessedness is that of those who, whatever their outward state may be, are in their inward life as those who feel that they have nothing of their own, must be receivers before they give, must be dependent on another’s bounty,"

Benson Commentary says;'
The word μακαριοι, here rendered blessed, properly means happy,...
'...By this expression, the poor in spirit,... But it seems much more probable that the truly humble are intended, or those who are sensible of their spiritual poverty, of their ignorance and sinfulness, their guilt,... These are happy, because their humility renders them teachable, submissive, resigned, patient, contented, and cheerful in all estates

Matthew Henry's Concise commentary says:
1. The poor in spirit are happy. These bring their minds to their condition, when it is a low condition. They are humble and lowly in their own eyes. They see their want, bewail their guilt, and thirst after a Redeemer.

Barnes Notes on the bible says:
To be poor in spirit is to have a humble opinion of ourselves; to be sensible that we are sinners, and have no righteousness of our own; to be willing to be saved only by the rich grace and mercy of God; to be willing to be where God places us, to bear what he lays on us, to go where he bids us,


There are more scholars who agree with this idea then you seem ready to admit. The fact is, i said it many posts ago, the NWT is NOT a 'literal' word for word translation. It doesnt claim to be that. So you are basically complaining about something that we dont even claim to be. Do you think every translation must be an Interlinear?
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Forum Readers :

1) The specific question at hand regards how Frederick Franz rendered πτοχοι so incorrectly. There are other problems with his paraphrasing (both grammatical and lexical, but only one we are dealing with in this example. I have repeatedly asked for information on translation and am detoured to commentary instead.

If I am then, unable to get an straight answer regarding this issue of translation from a Jehovah’s Witness, perhaps I can ask ANYONE; ANY READER if they see any justification for Frederick Franz to translate πτοχοι(“poor” in KJV) as a “consciousness of need”?

Pegg said that the Jehovah’s Witnesses take their lexical meaning of words from “scholars”.

Is there ANY READER, who knows of ANY legitimate greek lexicon; any greek dictionary; any papyral evidence; any early koine example in any of the worlds early koine literature in any period of time or any geographical location that renders the koine greek word πτοχοι (the poor) as a “consciousness of need”?

IF the answer is YES, then please, ANYONE, give us the source so as to justify Frederick Franz’s translation and free him from the claim that some of his translations are bizarre and unjustified.

IF the answer is NO, then it should be clear that Frederick Franz did NOT take his “meaning” of this specific word from any scholars lexicon or dictionary, but instead, this bizarre rendering came from some other source or motive.

Simply delaying dealing with this issue of translation does not make it go away. Offering irrelevant issues simply wastes forum readers time and causes them to become tired of following and issue when they want an answer and are offered irrelevant stalling instead. Offering commentary in the place of translation is another detour away from a clear discussion.


2) Pegg asked Clear : “i'd like to know what you think the verse is saying...what is its meaning according to how you read it?

Clear answered Pegg :
KJV rendered this : “ …the poor in spirit…” - I think the KJV is a perfectly fine rendering of the text. Grammatical τω has a subscripted iota and is in dative singular. πτοχοι is rendered "poor" and πνευματι is rendered "spirit".

Lexical πτοχοιis the specific translational issue we discussed in this verse.

Franz rendered this : “ those conscious of their spiritual need.”.

τω becomes genitive and πτοχοι becomes a "consciousness of need"


3)REGARDING PEGGS CLAIM THAT THE MEANING UNDERLYING THE TEXT CAME FROM “SCHOLARS

A) Clear referred Pegg to multiple, wonderful greek lexicons, such as Thayers, Strongs, Moultons, or even her own lexicon of choice, “Vines” as to the meaning of πτοχοι (the poor).

No lexicon has a “consciousness of need” as a legitimate meaning for πτοχοs.

Thus, Franz did NOT create his text from these or any other lexicon that I know of. Apparently Pegg also, has been unable to find any lexicon that has this meaning for πτοχοs. (I assume she has tried to find one and has been unable, which explains the shift from lexicons to commentaries)


4) Frederick Franz had only a single introductory course in Biblical greek (though more education in classical Greek). He had no formal education in Hebrew at all.

Thus, If Franz was unable to correctly translate, or to use a lexicon, then what processes or sources explain his strange departures from standard lexical meanings and from standard grammatical rules?

First, Pegg offered us the principle that Franz was “translating” according to what the verse meant to him. I actually agree with Peggs theory on this point. It would explain both the motive for leaving the greek text as well as the source of Franz’ final literary product.

Secondly, Pegg then brings in commentaries and the discussion commentators made about the finished text which others created (none of her commentators translated or created bibles).

In another case of unusual Irony, I also think this confusing of “commentary with translation” could explain yet another source of influence affecting Franz’s strange renderings. If someone nowadays can so easily mistake "commentary" for "translation", what if Franz also confused “commentaries about text” he read with “translation of text”? This also would explain another source of the strange renderings in the bible he created.

This second process is also quite consistent with the History of Raymond Franz who tells us that in trying to develop an early index for the Jehovah’s Witness movement, Frederick Franz directed him to use multiple commentaries written by other Christian movements. This was distasteful to Raymond who felt it was wrong to use “apostate” doctrines and commentaries as a source for Witness theology. Still, Peggs use of commentaries instead of lexicons is consistent with Jehovah’s Witness historical accounts of what Franz himself may have done.



5)Pegg said : “ There are more scholars who agree with this idea then you seem ready to admit. “

You have again made yet another error in this conclusion of yours.

I have NOT offered a single word of disagreement with the commentaries.

I simply pointed out that Commentaries about texts are different than translations of a text. While the commentaries may discuss the metaphorical meanings of finished text, none of them who read koine Greek would translate the word πτοχοι itself as a “consciousness of need”. Not one.

To help you understand the difference between commentary and translation, perhaps you can attempt to find a single commentary writer who translates the specific word πτοχοιas a “consciousness of need”.

Any single example in any of the world literature from any koine source from any time in the worlds history will do fine. If you cannot do it, then perhaps any and all other readers should attempt the same thing.

CAN ANYONE FIND ANY KOINE GREEK COMMENTATOR WHO TRANSLATES ΠΤΟΧΟΙ AS A “CONSCIOUSNESS OF NEED”. ANYONE?

If the lexicons indicate Franz was incorrect in his translation of the word πτοχοι and none of the commentators who read greek render the specific word πτοχοι as a "consciousness of need" then I think the point has been made multiple times and any further attempt to "re-define" this greek word is simply beating a dead horse. (unless someone has any NEW data to offer.)

Clear
φιτζτωω
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
Matthew Henry's Concise Commentary
Matt 5:3-12 Our Saviour here gives eight characters of blessed people, which represent to us the principal graces of a Christian. 1. The poor in spirit are happy. These bring their minds to their condition, when it is a low condition. They are humble and lowly in their own eyes. They see their want, bewail their guilt, and thirst after a Redeemer.


Ellicott's Commentary for English Readers
(3) Blessed.—The word differs from that used in Matthew 23:39; Matthew 25:34, as expressing a permanent state of felicity (happiness), rather than the passive reception of a blessing bestowed by another.

The poor in spirit.—The limitation, as in “the pure in heart,” points to the region of life in which the poverty is found. In Luke 6:20 there is no such qualifying clause, and there the words speak of outward poverty, as in itself a less perilous and therefore happier state than that of riches. Here the blessedness is that of those who, whatever their outward state may be, are in their inward life as those who feel that they have nothing of their own, must be receivers before they give, must be dependent on another’s bounty, and be, as it were, the “bedesmen” of the great King. To that temper of mind belongs the “kingdom of heaven,” the eternal realities, in this life and the life to come, of that society of which Christ is the Head. Things are sometimes best understood by their contraries, and we may point to the description of the church of Laodicea as showing us the opposite type of character, thinking itself “rich” in the spiritual life, when it is really as “the pauper,” destitute of the true riches, blind and naked.


Meyer's NT Commentary
Matthew 5:3-10. The beatitudes in general, in order to set forth, first, in a general way, the moral conditions of future participation in the Messiah’s kingdom.—.... Jesus, however, according to Matthew, transports the idea of the poor (les miserables) from the politico-theocratic realm (the members of the oppressed people of God, sunk in poverty and external wretchedness) into the purely moral sphere by means of the dative of more precise definition, τῷ πνεύματι (comp. Matthew 5:8): the poor in reference to their spirit, the spiritually poor—that is, those who feel, as a matter of consciousness, that they are in a miserable, unhappy condition; comp.Isaiah 57:15; Proverbs 29:23. The ΠΤΩΧΕΊΑ intended is then subjectively determined according to the consciousness of the subject, so that these latter (comp. Matthew 5:4-6) are conceived of as those who feel within them, the opposite of having enough, and of wanting nothing in a moral point of view; to whom, consequently, the condition of moral poverty and helplessness is a familiar thing,
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
If the lexicons indicate Franz was incorrect in his translation of the word πτοχοι and none of the commentators who read greek render the specific word πτοχοι as a "consciousness of need" then I think the point has been made multiple times and any further attempt to "re-define" this greek word is simply beating a dead horse. (unless someone has any NEW data to offer.)

Clear
φιτζτωω

He wasnt translating it.... a committee translated it.

And they were not translating words..... They were translating the meaning of the verse because the meaning is not conveyed by the word alone.
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
1) No greek lectionary or greek dictionary defines the word πτοχοι as “conscious of need

I am assuming that all forum readers who have tried to find any lexical or dictionary meaning of πτοχοι have discovered that they are unable to see a single incident where the specific word πτοχοιmeans a “consciousness of need”, but instead, it refers to “the poor” as a class, or “the beggars” as a class, or those who are in similar straits as a class.

I also expect that readers who have searched as I suggested, have discovered that any commentarian who knows and uses koine greek also uses the specific word “πτοχοι” as a reference to “the poor”, independent of whether the poor is conscious or unconscious of their situation.

It is ONLY by the addition of other words, such as τωπνευνατι (spiritually) that πτοχος can acquire addition lexical and contextual meaning and then come to mean “spiritually poor” (as opposed to being poor of money, or poor of heart such as depression, etc., or poor in knowledge poor (ignorance) or any other type of poverty).


2) No greek commentator does or can use the word πτοχοι for “consciousness of need” without adding further reference

Even Peggs example which uses the word “consciousness” in reference to Matt 5:3, had to use a german document from the 1800s by Meyer which was translated into English.

However, even Meyer demonstrates he must add “the poor in reference to their spirit “, thus demonstrating the principle that another reference MUST be made with the word “poor” before it can mean more than “poor”. One may assume “poor” refers to money, OR one must ask : “poor in WHAT??” (money, knowledge, attitude, poor health, etc). In this case, poor requires a reference to spirit before it can mean “poor in spirit”.

Also, Meyer demonstrates that he cannot use πτοχοιςas a definition for “consciousness” itself, but must explains the words “intended use” inside a larger sentence to which the word references.

Thus, even “consciousness” must reference another word before it can attach to other meaning (i.e. “conscious of what?”)

Meyer further, even gives us Bauers example that πτοχοι requires other words for context in his reference “those who are poor, but rich in the spiritual…” (he gives it in greek but this is an English translation - greek readers will see the reference plainly).


3) CREATING A COMMENTARY RATHER THAN A TRANSLATION

Pegg admits that they are not using the greek words in their “translation” : “And they were not translating words..... They were translating the meaning of the verse because the meaning is not conveyed by the word alone. “


Pegg and I are complete and absolute agreement on this point.

I have already pointed out that that Frederick Franz did not and could not have translated the Greek words with correct grammar and nuances since he was relatively uneducated in biblical greek (He had only one semester of introductory biblical greek, though more in classical greek).

It is obvious that Frederick Franz HAD to rely on the commentaries and the bibles produced by others who were educated in biblical greek and were able to translate biblical greek. Frederick Franz’ text itself confirms that Pegg and I are correct in our agreement on this specific point.



4) “…They were not translating words….” - Pegg

Certainly this is absolutely correct. They were NOT translating the words of any ancient Greek manuscript on this planet (that we know about).

Franz did not translate the greek words since he avoids authentic lexical meanings and gets the greek words wrong. Franz either did not know greek grammar or he disobeyed grammatical rules since he also breaks simple rules of greek grammar and does not follow authentic grammatical rules.

Franz paraphrases simple passages.

He is, in many of his departures from the authentic text, NOT using the authentic greek as a lexical source. For example, Matthew 5:3, in his version, was taken from an English source, not a greek one (I’ll explain this further on).

5) The creation of a "paraphrase" is not the same as the creation of a "translation"

The creation of a “bible” by means of using a commentary about the original biblical text rather than using the original biblical itself results in a product that is different than authentic translations of the actual New Testament.

For example, authentic biblical translations are similar enough to the original words that one is often able to translate relatively accurately back into the original greek from the translation. One can determine from an authentic and well done translation, what Jesus and the apostles actually said. One cannot do this with Franz’s bible.

For example : Franz’s rendering of “they who are conscious of their spiritual need” cannot BE back translated into the original greek as authentic translations of texts can often be (e.g. Ginsbergs "Massorah" and Erasmus first Greek printed bible, etc.)

This is due to the fact that Franz is NOT translating the biblical text, but paraphrasing and engaging in commentary..

For examples : The KJV uses “… the poor in spirit.” If one takes this English phrase, it is easily translated back from it parts, to the original. The poor = οι πτοχοι τω πνευματι (πνευμα would have a different ending, but it is close enough).

This process can be done to a translation because it is a translation of BOTH words and meaning. It is NOT a paraphrase or a commentary, but an authentic translation of the “original words” that Jesus spoke.

If a translator attempts this with Franz’s product “…those conscious of need...”, one cannot do this. “those conscious of” cannot BE rendered by “οι πτοχοι” in greek since the greek word for "consciousness" is not "πτοχοι" (the poor) but instead is a different word, and the word for “need” is not “πνευματι” (spiritual) but it is also a different word.

So, Franz’s product can carry meaning but, by reading Franz's paraphrase, one cannot know what Jesus actually said by reading his "translation". One can merely see the meaning Franz gives to the words that Jesus said. This is one important difference between translation and commentary.


The interlinear version Pegg offered as an example is also another good example of an actual “translation”. It says : “… those who are beggars for the spirit. ”.

Again, an English, back to Greek translation of this sentence will result in the same or nearly the same greek words that Jesus spoke.

It is in singular dative (i.e. a class) and doesn’t change to possessive as Franz does. This verse requires a word for beggars, and πτοχοι mirrors the greek. This translation refers to spirit and thus requires a reference to πνευμα[τι] just as in the original.

Again, this cannot be done by the paraphrase or commentary which Franz created. His renders a possessive use of consciousness and need, neither of which use the two words of the original greek (πτοχοι& πνευματι).

5) Back translation as evidence of good translation

Authentic translations that DO translate BOTH actual words and grammar of the original Greek New Testament, AND meaning are characterized by the ability to back translate

This means that a good translation of a the text carries BOTH the meaning AND uses words that are in the original text in their original context and meaning as possible. One can “back translate” a good translation.

To the extent Frederick Franz inserts paraphrases and commentary into the biblical text instead of “translating the words” (which have meaning), when one reads the Jehovah’s Witness New World Translation which Frederick Franz Created, one cannot know what Jesus or the apostles (or anyone else) actually said.

5) The Dependence upon commentaries and the need to avoid translational lectionaries and dictionaries

That point being made, I think the required references to commentaries, with required avoidance of translational lexicons and translational dictionaries serve as evidence that Frederick Franz did not render this verse by a scholarly translation from a lexicon or dictionary, but instead, must have relied up a commentary or other source to create his biblical text in this case of Matthew 5:3.

Is there a single reader who believes that Franz, with his single introductory level class in biblical Greek could read the greek in order to determine what the greek said and then was able to translate it any more correctly than the most able of translators have done. Is there anyone who believes that Frederick Franz, having had NO formal training in Hebrew whatsoever, actually DID read the Old Testament and was able to determine both what it mean and repair it’s flaws correctly?


Please Pegg. If you have no additional new relevant data, no additional, new, relevant logic, no additional new reasoning that will support the claim that Frederick Franz (and the other 4 members of his team who had less language ability than he did…) created a more correct overall translation of the bible than other trained and educated translators, then let’s leave this disagreement and go on to your next claim (if you still want to make the claim below…)



6) Pegg
said : “He wasnt translating it.... a committee translated it. And they were not translating words..... They were translating the meaning of the verse because the meaning is not conveyed by the word alone.”

It is, irrelevant to me if the strange and bizarre renderings in the New World Bible were created by a single person who had only an introductory level education in biblical greek and no education in hebrew, or if this process involved a thousand uneducated and untrained individuals.

The product and the outcome was the same.

I do NOT want to start that specific discussion since I think it is another irrelevant tangent to the discussion and the textual changes speak for themselves. However, since it seems important to you, I will start another thread on this issue so that we can examine the individuals who made up this “translation committee” that created the jehovah’s witness bible and you can make your point regarding their qualifications and what the others on the committee were able to add to this project.

In any case Pegg, I hope your lifes journey is good and wonderful and happy. I also thank you for the information and discussion.

Clear
φιτωτζω
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
I wont be joining you on a discussion that attacks individuals, sorry.

The NWT has been examined by many scholars who have praised it as a very good rendering of the text. You dont agree with that, but thats fine. You dont seem to really be interested in examining the text, you seem more interested in the level of education of the individuals involved in the translating committee. Were Jesus apostles educated in the rabbinical schools? No. Yet Jesus was able to still use those men to relay his word to his followers. Or do you think its not possible for God to give people the understanding they need to teach his word correctly? Because that is what you seem to be implying.

So far, you've picked out one verse (Matt 5:3) and have been unable to really show that it is incorrectly translated because every other translator knows that 'blessed' actually means 'happy' in the verse, and 'poor in spirit' actually means someone who knows they need Gods guidance and mercy.

I asked if you want to discuss any other verses and you didnt come up with any.

So Thankyou for the discussion thus far, its reinforced my confidence in the NWT and the translating committee and in the additional research i did I saw that many bible scholars agree with the NWT rendering of the verse in Matt 5:3. :)
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Post one of three

1) REGARDING EXAMINING THE ACTUAL GREEK TEXT OF MATTHEW 5:3

Pegg said : “You dont seem to really be interested in examining the text…

Pegg :
This is another silly and deceptive claim. Any reader who has followed this thread realizes this claim is opposite of my interest.

In post #8, YOU first brought up Matt 5:3 as an example of “translation”.
In post #9, I immediately responded with a post meant specifically to “examine the actual text”.
Below is what I said :
QUOTE Within the quote you gave us tells us to “consider the perplexing text at Matthew 5:3: “Blessed are the poor in spirit.” (KingJames Version) It was rendered: “Happy are those conscious of their spiritual need.”

Μακαριοι οι πτωχοι τω πνευματι οτι αυτων εστιν η Βασιλεια των οθρανων.” is the Greek of Matt 5:3 (I’ll look later for variants)

blessed [are] the poor in spirit “… = King James Translation

Happy [are] those conscious of their spiritual need….” = New World Translation

Where in this sentence is Franz finding the words “conscious of their spiritual need”.
Where does Franz find “conscious” for example? It doesn’t appear in the Greek.
What about the greek word for “need”. It isn’t in the Greek text in this sentence either.

Do you see the problem with such "interpretations" rather than "translations".
How does Franz create “conscious of their spiritual need.” From the Greek that does not have the word for “conscious” nor the word for “need” nor are they obviously implied (as the word “are” may be implied and and a verb is required in the english)

I can see how Franz could have rendered Μακαριοι as “happy”, though strangely, he then renders it differently as a form of “blessing” in vss 4,5,6,7,8,9, and 10.
What is the justification for giving it one meaning in one sentence, but a different meaning in the following 7 verses.

How does Franz explain why he thinks the greek should be translated in this way in Matt 5:3?

These sorts of unusual renderings smack of “interpretations” that are placed into the text and are not authentic “translations” of the given text.

Anyway, if you can explain how and where such a “translation” can be created, that would be helpful to understand the process Franz used to create his bible.
END QUOTE


Pegg, The authentic underlying text IS critical to both creating and determining meaning.

Though commentary may depart from the actual the text, a translation cannot, since it should indicate what Jesus, the apostles, the prophets, and others actually said anciently. This is important historically. The text must remain true to the original, as opposed to a paraphrase or commentary (both of which may explore different meanings the original text may have…), both of which cannot tell us what the original text was. A true translation cannot do this. THIS is the problem I have with Frederick Franz's text. He creates specific paraphrases and specific commentary within the text that is then called “translation”.

Readers realize that when I suggested we look at the actual text and see if any greek lexicon or dictionary allows Frederick Franz to change the meaning of specific text, you have (thus far) refused to offer a single rebuttal to actual textual meaning and instead, you have consistently diverted to commentaries instead of lectionaries or dictionaries (which are the standards for meaning). Though I agree with many of the commentaries, they are not translations of text, but instead, commentaries about the translations of text.

Clear
φιφυφυω
Post two of three follows
 
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Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
Clear, you must have missed post 29 31 33 & 35 on this page.

But never mind, you are on a one way track and I dont think anything is going to get you off it.
 
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