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What's in a Claim? Did Jesus say New Testament was God's word?

tariqkhwaja

Jihad Against Terrorism
Assalamualaikum.

In fact one very simple criterion of any religions is presented here. It is presented here as a simple yet effective refutation of Christianity but it works for all major religions of the world. Muslims usually begin their debate with Christians by telling them their holy book, the Bible, has been distorted much. But there is enough in the Bible to positively disprove the Christians' own claims. Isn't it better to start on a level both parties can agree on? Let's agree for the sake of argument that the Bible is, indeed, accurate. And I present an invitation to any and all Christians to refute the argument made below.

We studied in English 102 here at the American University in Dubai (AUD) and I am sure formal writing all over the world acknowledges the use and importance of thesis statements. Reasoning can only follow a claim. Isn't it foolish to try and prove something without making a claim first? So the same should be true for Holy Books. The New Testament is a series of letters written by various disciples of Christ. Christians believe that these letters (the Gospels and the letters following) are the word of God. That they are part of scripture as much as anything else.

The question, however, is whether Jesus ever called it the Word of God. Did Jesus ever say that the writings of his disciples were equivalent to being the Word of God? Christians might define the Word of God differently but it is a fact that nowhere in any of the four Gospels does one find any evidence of Jesus calling the Gospels or the letters that follow the Word of God. He doesn't even hint at it. The most he says about his disciples is that they will be guided by the Holy Spirit. And there is no denying that some of them were. But where did Jesus say that the letters written by Matthew, John, Luke, Mark, Peter, James, Paul, etc. were the Word of God? Why do Christians fight tooth and nail trying to prove a claim that Jesus never made? Where is it written in the Gospels that the Gospels are, themselves, the Word of God? Any person reads the Gospels and can easily realize that they are the relations of various events in the memories of various humans. Are they anything more? Christians say yes. Priests preach it. That they are the Word of God. But forget proof. Forget lengthy discussions of why they are and why they are not. Forget all that.

Just show us: did Jesus say what you claim? If not, then why insist? Why even bother telling? Why even believe a book to be the Word of God if Jesus, himself, never said it was?

Lets assume for the sake of argument that if we read through the New Testament after completing the Old Testament any honest man would see that it is the word of God. But it is one thing to conclude that a book is amazing. It is another thing completely to claim that it is God's words. It is not for a human to conclude any writing is the Word of God if the writing never claims it to be. To say that every jot, every part, every sentence of the New Testament and of the letters therein is the Word of God and that it should be treated as such and to continue to blindly insist on this is one thing. But to, at least, show that claim in the book itself is completely another thing. Jesus should have categorically stated somewhere ... anywhere ... that the letters of his disciples were to be relied upon as the Word of God. And he should have told us exactly which letters too. He should have hinted at the great influence Paul was to have. Didn't the Old testament point to Jesus? Didn't Jesus fulfill many of the prophecies therein? It was because Jesus' advent was an important turning point in the history. So, for Christianity St. Paul marked that important point. Most of Christian theology today has, after all, been made explicit by Paul. But what many might not know is that Paul never saw Jesus as far as the Gospels are concerned. His authority solely lies in a vision he, himself, relates. But a being as important as Paul. One would hope that Jesus would have hinted something about Paul to his disciples. That the gospels would mention the Guidance by the Holy Spirit of Jesus' disciples along with one who was not among them, for example. But nothing. We find nothing of the sort. That Paul was to be guided by the Holy Spirit is not even hinted at. Yet it is his writings that make explicit theology of Christians today. A claim Christians strive to support without any hint of Jesus supporting that
claim. How sad is that?

And moreover all letters of correspondence between various disciples are not available to us. Surely Peter wrote much more than what we have of his writings in the Bible. So, if Peter's letters were the Word of God then, by inference, one would say the Word of God is lost in part ... huge part. Unless there is a place in the Bible where Jesus mentions exactly which letters are and which are not the Word of God. Does that not raise many dilemmas? Shouldn't Jesus have cleared all these questions by telling us what letters should constitute the New Testament? But we find that Jesus mentions nothing of the sort.
All he said was of guidance by the Holy Spirit of his disciples. But that is in no way equivalent to their words, letters, and relations to be the Word of God. There were many who were Guided by the Holy Spirit. And by Christian claim many Christians still are guided by the Holy Spirit. Then do Christians believe that their own words, their own stories, their own sentiments too should be a part of the Bible? The Holy Spirit guides select humans to write the Word of God. However, anyone guided by the Holy Spirit does not write the Words of God. Just calling someone guided by the Holy Spirit in no way means he or she has reached the level where their words are the words of God.

This argument can go on and on. If there is any Christian who can refute the above argument please come forward. In private or in comments it would be good to know. If not then isn't it time some of us reconsidered our beliefs? Can we adopt honesty and not blind faith for once!?
 

e2ekiel

Member
You have a lot of questions here so I'm not sure what you are asking. But if I start with your highlighted question
"Just show us: did Jesus say what you claim? If not, then why insist? Why even bother telling? Why even believe a book to be the Word of God if Jesus, himself, never said it was?"
Jesus didn't claim the NT was God's word for the simple academic fact (that all scholars, historians, believers and anyone willing to apply intellectual honesty to a historical document) that the NT wasn't written till AFTER the life, death, resurrection and ascension of Jesus Christ, but within living memory of Him.

Show me any document, aside from the NT, whose internal and external evidence have withstood almost 2000 years of scrutiny from the greatest minds from any culture and from any time.
 
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Green Kepi

Active Member
Jesus stated to the Apostles that God sent Him and that He now is sending them out to preach the Word of God. Jesus "breathed" on each of them and they received the Holy Spirit [John 20:21-22]; (it was not at the same level as today's receiving the Holy Spirit at baptism). As 'e2ekiel' stated, its hard to understand just what you are asking or wanting us to prove. You must remember, God is not the author of confusion, preachers are....
 

Shermana

Heretic
The word "Logos" Does not mean "word" in the sense of "text" but in "Wisdom", like "Word of the wise".
 

tariqkhwaja

Jihad Against Terrorism
You have a lot of questions here so I'm not sure what you are asking. But if I start with your highlighted question
"Just show us: did Jesus say what you claim? If not, then why insist? Why even bother telling? Why even believe a book to be the Word of God if Jesus, himself, never said it was?"
Jesus didn't claim the NT was God's word for the simple academic fact (that all scholars, historians, believers and anyone willing to apply intellectual honesty to a historical document) that the NT wasn't written till AFTER the life, death, resurrection and ascension of Jesus Christ, but within living memory of Him.
Yes it was written after. But that does not change the fact that Jesus did not authorize (pre- or post-) the NT as the Word of God. It being written after does not excuse Jesus from authorizing it. It being written after does not excuse the NT from needing Divine authorization. Specially since God knew past, present, and future no?
Jesus stated to the Apostles that God sent Him and that He now is sending them out to preach the Word of God. Jesus "breathed" on each of them and they received the Holy Spirit [John 20:21-22]; (it was not at the same level as today's receiving the Holy Spirit at baptism). As 'e2ekiel' stated, its hard to understand just what you are asking or wanting us to prove. You must remember, God is not the author of confusion, preachers are....
As stated earlier according to the above argument the words of apostles were the words of God. But that would apply to all the words or only a few? Either way there are several letters they wrote that are lost forever. So NT is quite incomplete. Is that the point here?
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
Why does it matter what Jesus called something that didn't exist at the time Jesus was alive?
 

tariqkhwaja

Jihad Against Terrorism
Why does it matter what Jesus called something that didn't exist at the time Jesus was alive?
Repetition has its advantages so let it be understood again that it matters because that "something" cannot be the word of God unless God claimed it was so. Thus the claim matters. And the claim must come from God Himself. Jesus being God in your religion should suffice.
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
The New Testament is a series of letters written by various disciples of Christ. Christians believe that these letters (the Gospels and the letters following) are the word of God. That they are part of scripture as much as anything else.
The question, however, is whether Jesus ever called it the Word of God. Did Jesus ever say that the writings of his disciples were equivalent to being the Word of God?

Jesus died before the gospel accounts were written. Jesus died in 33CE. The first Gospel account was written about 10 years after his death.

Christians might define the Word of God differently but it is a fact that nowhere in any of the four Gospels does one find any evidence of Jesus calling the Gospels or the letters that follow the Word of God. He doesn't even hint at it.
But where did Jesus say that the letters written by Matthew, John, Luke, Mark, Peter, James, Paul, etc. were the Word of God?

During his earthly ministry, Jesus had taught his apostles many things and nothing was put down in writing while Jesus was alive. However, Jesus promised this: “The helper, the holy spirit, which the Father will send in my name, that one will teach you all things and bring back to your minds all the things I told you.”

It was after the holy spirit was given to the apostles that they were able to fully understand and recall all that they had been taught. They then proceeded to go out preaching the message of Jesus to the people and thats when they also began to put those teachings and instructions in writing.

The apostles taught from the hebrew scriptures. They confirmed the prophecies about the messiah and they explained how those prophecies had been fulfilled in Jesus. So the Greek Scriptures are really the explanation of the Hebrew scriptures and for that reason they are truly the word of God because they explain the truths of Gods word as found in the Hebrew scriptures.



Where is it written in the Gospels that the Gospels are, themselves, the Word of God? Any person reads the Gospels and can easily realize that they are the relations of various events in the memories of various humans. Are they anything more? Christians say yes. Priests preach it. That they are the Word of God. But forget proof. Forget lengthy discussions of why they are and why they are not. Forget all that.


They are more then simple accounts....they are also prophetic and many of the prophecies in the Greek Scriptures were fulfilled. For example, it is in the gospel of Matthew and Luke that the destruction of Jerusalem is foretold. The destruction by Rome occurred in 70CE... but the gospels were written long before that time...even the book of Acts is written before 70CE.

So there is prophecy that came true and we know that 'no prophecy is from mans will but from God'

Lets assume for the sake of argument that if we read through the New Testament after completing the Old Testament any honest man would see that it is the word of God. But it is one thing to conclude that a book is amazing. It is another thing completely to claim that it is God's words. It is not for a human to conclude any writing is the Word of God if the writing never claims it to be.

Acts 1:8 Jesus said: "but YOU will receive power when the holy spirit arrives upon YOU, and YOU will be witnesses of me both in Jerusalem and in all Ju‧de′a and Sa‧mar′i‧a and to the most distant part of the earth.”

The Greek scriptures were written under the direction of Gods holy spirit. Jesus promised that the holy spirit would be their teacher and they would go and teach others by means of the power of the holy spirit.

That is why what they wrote is said to be 'Gods word' and not their own. The apostles were given the same power of prophesying as was given to the prophets of old.
2Peter 1: 20 For YOU know this first, that no prophecy of Scripture springs from any private interpretation. 21 For prophecy was at no time brought by man’s will, but men spoke from God as they were borne along by holy spirit."



So, for Christianity St. Paul marked that important point. Most of Christian theology today has, after all, been made explicit by Paul. But what many might not know is that Paul never saw Jesus as far as the Gospels are concerned. His authority solely lies in a vision he, himself, relates. But a being as important as Paul. One would hope that Jesus would have hinted something about Paul to his disciples.

The Apostle Peter said of Paul: 2Peter 3:15 Furthermore, consider the patience of our Lord as salvation, just as our beloved brother Paul according to the wisdom given him also wrote YOU, 16 speaking about these things as he does also in all [his] letters.

And in the book of Acts (written by Luke) Jesus appeared to one of the disciples named Ananias and told him about Paul and to go to Paul and teach him the gospel because Jesus had chosen him to be an apostle.
Acts 9:10 There was in Damascus a certain disciple named An‧a‧ni′as, and the Lord said to him in a vision: “An‧a‧ni′as!” He said: “Here I am, Lord.” 11 The Lord said to him: “Rise, go to the street called Straight, and at the house of Judas look for a man named Saul (Paul), from Tarsus. For, look! he is praying, 12 and in a vision he has seen a man named An‧a‧ni′as come in and lay his hands upon him that he might recover sight.” 13 But An‧a‧ni′as answered: “Lord, I have heard from many about this man, how many injurious things he did to your holy ones in Jerusalem. 14 And here he has authority from the chief priests to put in bonds all those calling upon your name.” 15 But the Lord said to him: “Be on your way, because this man is a chosen vessel to me to bear my name to the nations as well as to kings and the sons of Israel. 16 For I shall show him plainly how many things he must suffer for my name

That the gospels would mention the Guidance by the Holy Spirit of Jesus' disciples along with one who was not among them, for example. But nothing. We find nothing of the sort. That Paul was to be guided by the Holy Spirit is not even hinted at. Yet it is his writings that make explicit theology of Christians today. A claim Christians strive to support without any hint of Jesus supporting that claim. How sad is that?

Paul was not a disciple at that time. he was likely living in Rome being schooled at the feet of Gamaliel, the great Jewish Elder. Why would Jesus need to mention someone who would come on the scene for several more years?.

Its like me asking the muslims why Mohammad never mentioned that Uthman would be the one to compile the Quran into one standard version. Why did Mohammad never inform muslims that all their different qurans would eventually be compiled into one?
 

lunamoth

Will to love
Repetition has its advantages so let it be understood again that it matters because that "something" cannot be the word of God unless God claimed it was so. Thus the claim matters. And the claim must come from God Himself. Jesus being God in your religion should suffice.
By analogy, does that mean Muhammad is your God?
 

Green Kepi

Active Member
Tarigkhwaja...

"If we, or even if an angel (Gabriel) from Heaven, present some new 'gospel' other than what you have received, let him be cursed." -- Galatians 1:9

I realize you ask me to defend the Word of the New Testament enough to satisfy you; however, don’t think any Christian could achieve this to the level that would sway your thoughts and beliefs…why? Because of the following:

The Bible gives an explicit description of the test of a prophet: if he says anything that doesn't come to pass, he has spoken falsely and to therefore NOT listen to him.

So…please tell me…what prophecies did Muhammad make that were fulfilled prophecies? Further, the Biblical N.T. command says that, even if a prophecy comes to pass and the prophet spreads another god, do not listen to him. The god of the Koran and the God of the Bible are NOT the same.

I don’t care what George Bush said. The Koran says God has no son; while both the Old AND New Testaments claim otherwise. The Koran says God calls Jews "swine" while the Bible says the Jews are "the apple" (proper translation: pupil, very center) of God's eye.

The Koran says the original "religion of God" was Muslim, the Bible says it's Judaism. (The Koran also says Jesus called Himself a Muslim, while the Bible says clearly He was a Jew.)

What say you?
 
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kepha31

Active Member
First, Jesus did not refer to the New Testament as the Word of God. He founded a Church, not a book club.
Second, "Word of God" has different meanings for different Christians. Some Christians hold to the literal letter of each word as inspired, similar to the approach a Muslim has to the Qu'ran. Some Christians do not believe that "Word of God" means the Bible alone. Any Bible search engine of "Word of God" shows that the usage in both testaments never refers to the written word by itself. This fact refutes "sola scriptura". Basically I mean there are literalists, and literaryists. I choose the literaryness of the Bible because human language is limited. God is not.

Jesus made no reference to the New Testament as being the Word of God. The New Testament did not exist yet. The Gospel message was originally transferred from the Apostles to their successors ORALY. Only bishops, priests, and deacons were qualified to teach the Word of God, not every believer. The Gospel message was the property of the successors of the Apostles. No NT writings existed for 20+ years after Pentacost, so because there was no New Testament, that does not mean the Word of God did not exist.


2 Timothy 3
14 But abide thou in the things which thou hast learned and hast been assured of, (TRADITION) knowing of whom thou hast learned them. (MAGISTERIUM)
15 And that from a babe thou hast known the sacred writings (SCRIPTURE) which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.

There is harmony and complimentarity here. It is lke a stool with three legs: take one off, the the stool falls down. Scripture and Tradition are two fonts from the same divine wellspring, which is Apostolic Teaching. Without the authority of the Magisterium, we would never know what books belong in the New Testament. Text without context is a pretext. The Bible without the Church is just an excuse. If you remove the Bible from the Church, the bible is no longer an inspired book.
The OP question is flawed because it presupposes a one sided view that is inconsistent with how a majority of Christians view the New Testament.
 
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tariqkhwaja

Jihad Against Terrorism
First, Jesus did not refer to the New Testament as the Word of God. He founded a Church, not a book club.
Second, "Word of God" has different meanings for different Christians. Some Christians hold to the literal letter of each word as inspired, similar to the approach a Muslim has to the Qu'ran. Some Christians do not believe that "Word of God" means the Bible alone. Any Bible search engine of "Word of God" shows that the usage in both testaments never refers to the written word by itself. This fact refutes "sola scriptura". Basically I mean there are literalists, and literaryists. I choose the literaryness of the Bible because human language is limited. God is not.

Jesus made no reference to the New Testament as being the Word of God. The New Testament did not exist yet. The Gospel message was originally transferred from the Apostles to their successors ORALY. Only bishops, priests, and deacons were qualified to teach the Word of God, not every believer. The Gospel message was the property of the successors of the Apostles. No NT writings existed for 20+ years after Pentacost, so because there was no New Testament, that does not mean the Word of God did not exist.


2 Timothy 3
14 But abide thou in the things which thou hast learned and hast been assured of, (TRADITION) knowing of whom thou hast learned them. (MAGISTERIUM)
15 And that from a babe thou hast known the sacred writings (SCRIPTURE) which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.

There is harmony and complimentarity here. It is lke a stool with three legs: take one off, the the stool falls down. Scripture and Tradition are two fonts from the same divine wellspring, which is Apostolic Teaching. Without the authority of the Magisterium, we would never know what books belong in the New Testament. Text without context is a pretext. The Bible without the Church is just an excuse. If you remove the Bible from the Church, the bible is no longer an inspired book.
The OP question is flawed because it presupposes a one sided view that is inconsistent with how a majority of Christians view the New Testament.
Hmm ... "Word of God" is quite the misleading way to describe the Bible. I do not know what majority of Christians believe but Christians are not quick to point out this so-not-obvious meaning of "Word of God". Furthermore, despite not literally being so most Christians do effectively take and use every word of the NT (to discuss catholic vs evangelical disputes for example) by quoting various parts.
My point being if it isn't the literal "Word of God" and on top of that the basic doctrines aren't explicitly stated in the gospels then what really are the basis for Christianity?
 

outhouse

Atheistically
The question, however, is whether Jesus ever called it the Word of God

we will never know

not a word was written by a man who had ever seen or heard a word pass jesus lips.

All gospel authors are unknown and later attributed authors as the church felt like hundreds of year after composition.
 

Villager

Active Member
Assalamualaikum.

In fact one very simple criterion of any religions is presented here. It is presented here as a simple yet effective refutation of Christianity but it works for all major religions of the world. Muslims usually begin their debate with Christians by telling them their holy book, the Bible, has been distorted much.
But they provide no evidence of that.

But there is enough in the Bible to positively disprove the Christians' own claims.
Again, it's one thing to say so, it's another to demonstrate it.

The question, however, is whether Jesus ever called it the Word of God.
It's not a question for Christians. Christians use their own judgement on the matter, and indeed are unanimous that the books concerned are the Word of God, along with the Old Testament. Christians do not use the authority of Jesus to either name those books, or even to say that there is a New Testament or Bible. They use their own personal opinions, and use the NT as well as the OT because that is what they decide, for themselves. It is essentially their own private concern.

Where Christians interface with others is not in laying any claim for the existence of God, for inerrancy of the Bible, or even that there is a Bible. Christians interface with others by saying that Jesus died for their sins. The evidence they see for this is in their own lives, because it is the practical change in their own lives that persuaded them that Jesus is the Christ or Messiah, and that the Bible is worth reading. They invariably, having read it, treat the Bible as his Word or message to them. They also see it as his message to mankind, but only for those who accept Jesus as the Christ. Any who do not see the Bible as the divine message are not by them accounted Christians.
 
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Mister Emu

Emu Extraordinaire
Staff member
Premium Member
My point being if it isn't the literal "Word of God" and on top of that the basic doctrines aren't explicitly stated in the gospels then what really are the basis for Christianity?
The Church and the Apostolic teachings are the basis of Christianity. The Bible is a product of the Church, not the other way around.
 

AdamEve

Member
The Bible is a product of the Church, not the other way around.

I wouldn't agree with that.
For instance old testament is partialy copy of stories originaly created by Sumerans.
New testament was created by Romans (Piso theory) to unite, pacify and ridicule Jews and slaves.
Only after all that Chatolic church was created based in Rome because of the above reasons.
 
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