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Didn't remember. Today he'd be Israeli.He wouldn’t be a citizen unless he became one. Romans didn’t even give citizenship to fellow Italians until much later and after many revolts.
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Didn't remember. Today he'd be Israeli.He wouldn’t be a citizen unless he became one. Romans didn’t even give citizenship to fellow Italians until much later and after many revolts.
No, Moses established a law binding to all Israelite families, male and female. It was not restricted to daughters who had no brothers, despite the fact that Moses initially enacts the command while addressing the daughters of Zelophehad. He clearly in the end extends the injunction to all Israel.No, the man determines the tribe. The text discusses inheritance of tribal property when one marries out of the tribe. Sorry - I typed the wrong verse. Num 36 discusses how a woman who has brothers can marry out of the tribe but a woman who doesn't and therefore has land inheritance cannot. So your claim that intertribal marriage wasn't allowed ("Hebrews were not allowed to marry outside their tribes") is provably false.
People are counted "l'beit avotam" when the census happens -- that means "to the house of their father". This is called a "mateh" (one of the words for tribe, though it means "staff" or "stick"). See Num 17 and Josh 2 for examples. Ezra 2:59 is also interesting as it distinguishes between "father's house" and "ancestry."
Reread verse 8. In terms of daughters this only applies if they inherit (have no brothers). If they don't inherit, and their marriage would not cause any inheritance to pass to another tribe, they may marry into another tribe. This is to avoid the possibility of inheritance passing because of a lack of male heirs who would otherwise retain the inheritance. Tribal inheritance goes through the men but when there are no men it goes through the women. So women who do NOT carry this inheritance, and their marriage out would not cause this problem can marry out. Black letter law.No, Moses established a law binding to all Israelite families, male and female. It was not restricted to daughters who had no brothers, despite the fact that Moses initially enacts the command while addressing the daughters of Zelophehad. He clearly in the end extends the injunction to all Israel.
5 Then at the Lord’s command Moses gave this order to the Israelites: “What the tribe of the descendants of Joseph is saying is right. 6 This is what the Lord commands for Zelophehad’s daughters: They may marry anyone they please as long as they marry within their father’s tribal clan. 7 No inheritance in Israel is to pass from one tribe to another, for every Israelite shall keep the tribal inheritance of their ancestors. 8 Every daughter who inherits land in any Israelite tribe must marry someone in her father’s tribal clan, so that every Israelite will possess the inheritance of their ancestors. 9 No inheritance may pass from one tribe to another, for each Israelite tribe is to keep the land it inherits.”
No, Moses established a law binding to all Israelite families, male and female. It was not restricted to daughters who had no brothers, despite the fact that Moses initially enacts the command while addressing the daughters of Zelophehad. He clearly in the end extends the injunction to all Israel.
5 Then at the Lord’s command Moses gave this order to the Israelites: “What the tribe of the descendants of Joseph is saying is right. 6 This is what the Lord commands for Zelophehad’s daughters: They may marry anyone they please as long as they marry within their father’s tribal clan. 7 No inheritance in Israel is to pass from one tribe to another, for every Israelite shall keep the tribal inheritance of their ancestors. 8 Every daughter who inherits land in any Israelite tribe must marry someone in her father’s tribal clan, so that every Israelite will possess the inheritance of their ancestors. 9 No inheritance may pass from one tribe to another, for each Israelite tribe is to keep the land it inherits.”
Maybe "subject of Rome" would be a more accurate term.He wouldn’t be a citizen unless he became one. Romans didn’t even give citizenship to fellow Italians until much later and after many revolts.
So, you're saying that only when an inheritance passes to the daughter, as in the case when there are no male inheritors alive or existed, she must marry into her own clan. Otherwise, any Israelite, male or female, may marry someone from any clan within the Israelite tribes?Reread verse 8. In terms of daughters this only applies if they inherit (have no brothers). If they don't inherit, and their marriage would not cause any inheritance to pass to another tribe, they may marry into another tribe. This is to avoid the possibility of inheritance passing because of a lack of male heirs who would otherwise retain the inheritance. Tribal inheritance goes through the men but when there are no men it goes through the women. So women who do NOT carry this inheritance, and their marriage out would not cause this problem can marry out. Black letter law.
Yes, but that was clearly forbidden, and it became one of the main catalysts that lead to their downfall. Especially in the case of Solomon, or others who were lead astray by their foreign wivews pagan gods. Did not Ezra .get violent over such acts committed by the repatriated Jews?The so-called Israelites intermixed with the Canaanites anyway. Their descendants became the Jewish people.
Judges 3:5-7
King James Version
5 And the children of Israel dwelt among the Canaanites, Hittites, and Amorites, and Perizzites, and Hivites, and Jebusites:
6 And they took their daughters to be their wives, and gave their daughters to their sons, and served their gods.
But they still intermixed and the descendants are Jewish. When the scripture implies that all the Canaanites were destroyed that simply isn’t true.Yes, but that was clearly forbidden, and it became one of the main catalysts that lead to their downfall. Especially in the case of Solomon, or others who were lead astray by their foreign wivews pagan gods. Did not Ezra .get violent over such acts committed by the repatriated Jews?
The area was called Palestine. Even the Tractate Sanhedrin claims that it's the records of court cases from the second temple in the first century... in the land of Palestine.Every so often, I drive past a church that has a sign that says "Jesus was a refugee," and I've seen similar messages around the internet as well. While I'm not addressing the political aspects of such a message in this thread, it got me to thinking about what Jesus' actual nationality would have been and how he would have been considered a refugee. At the time of Jesus' birth, wasn't the territory under Roman control? Would he be a subject of the Roman Empire? Was he actually a refugee? Just curious what other thoughts there might be on this.
Ezra chased their wives away. But, either way, the bloodlines became corrupt somewhere, somehow, for sure, but not all married outside their Jewish heritage. Are there any pure Judahites, or Zebulanites, or Levites, Danites, Asherites, etc...? Possibly.But they still intermixed and the descendants are Jewish. When the scripture implies that all the Canaanites were destroyed that simply isn’t true.
It was not called Palestine in the day of Jesus. It was called Judea, Samaria, and Gallilee. And Jesus was a JEW.The area was called Palestine. Even the Tractate Sanhedrin claims that it's the records of court cases from the second temple in the first century... in the land of Palestine.
Yeshu (Jesus) the Palestinian.
Everything belongs to G-d, and we all return to Him..When the Romans destroyed Jerusalem and exiled the Jews, they renamed it Palestine as a kind of dumb attempt to make people forget that it belonged to the Jews..
And God gave Canaan to the children of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.Everything belongs to G-d, and we all return to Him..
..with no more than what we were born with.
Almighty God gives Sovereignty to whom He wills, and takes Sovereignty from whom He wills.
Human beings love wealth, and they often break G-d's laws to obtain it. He is aware of what is in the hearts of men.
He knows who strives to please Him, and whose intentions are not pure.
May G-d save us from jehannum .. Amen.
..when was that, exactly?And God gave Canaan to the children of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.
And then God took back the lease after the Son was rejected and killed!And God gave Canaan to the children of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.
Genesis states that it is an everlasting covenant. So it will never matter how much time has passed...when was that, exactly?
A lot has happened since then.
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You can believe that Genesis is an accurate document if you like.Genesis states that it is an everlasting covenant. So it will never matter how much time has passed.
So, are you saying that the Israelite priest class may have cooked the books in their own favor? Elevating themselves high above others? Apple of Gods eye? Chosen people while the Gentiles were dogs?You can believe that Genesis is an accurate document if you like.
I don't. Most people living over 2000 years ago could not read and write.
That leaves it wide open to fraud and manipulation.
In any case, an "everlasting covenant" can be broken if people do not behave righteously.
I do not believe in falsehood. I do not believe that G-d chooses to support people through "who they are" over what they are.
In any case, an "everlasting covenant" can be broken if people do not behave righteously.
It depends. Some aspects of the covenant are indeed conditional, as you say. But other aspects are UNconditional. For example, the Land belonging to Israel is unconditional. But being allowed to live on the land is conditional. IOW there are times in history where God has exiled Israel, but even during those times, the Land has still belonged to Israel.
I don't even know what that means...the Land belonging to Israel is unconditional..