Again, we don't have proof either way and it doesn't matter because.....DRUM ROLL.....According to halakha once a Jew takes on ideas, like those found in the NT, they are no longer considered Jewish. Besides, most Jews who go the NT route, or other routes like it, they are normally working hard to seperate themselves from the Torath Mosheh Jewish community. The original Jewish christians did this, seperate themselves out, and they dissappeared 2 generations later.
Again, the word was known outside of the Jewish community by the time revelations is beleived to have been written. It isn't relevant to a Torath Mosheh Jew. The author wrote in Greek and discussed non-Torah based concepts.
That is what you say. We Torath Mosheh Jews have a different opinion. We can also claim books written by non-Roman authors are Jewish using that criteria. Maybe even those who performed the Spanish Inquisition were Jewish because they wrote about Jewish topics. As far as Torath Mosheh Jews are concerned the minute that the author of revelations took out his pen/feather/stick to write he was doing so as someone who was not Jewish. The fact that he wrote in Greek also makes it clear who his audience was.
As a Torath Mosheh Jew, all theories about revelation come back to the same point. It isn't relevant to Torath Mosheh Jews. It never was and it never will be. We go on for days speculating about why the author wrote what he/she did and why. It winds back at the same spot of - who cares? The author was living as a Torath Mosheh, the author wrote in a language that was not relevant to any Torath Mosheh Jew, and the authors intention has been lost to history. Lastly, the author did not produce a generation of Jews after himself/herself to keep his/her ideas going so. There you have it.