In
Romans 11:34 Paul asks the question
"For who hath known the mind of the Lord? or who hath been his counsellor?"
Then in
1 Corinthians 2:16, he repeats the question
"For who hath known the mind of the Lord, that he may instruct him? but we have the mind of Christ."
But now Paul says we have the mind of Christ, so what does that mean.
Hi reddogs, that is an excellent question. Because to be in harmony with the Father, one has to be "like-minded with Jesus Christ".
In Rom.11:34, one needs to look at the incontext message of that verse---Which is dealing with the Nation of Israel. Jesus had stated that Daniel's prophecies (9:24-27)were fulfilled and their house was "left desolate".(Matt.23:37-39)
Paul acknowledges that a "remnant" is left(Rom.11:5). Also, that any Believing Person, by Faith, has access to the same "Tree" to be grarted into it.(Unbelievers were cast off, but Believers still have access to the "tree".)
It is the same "unbelief" which kept the Israelites out of Canaan, the promised land, which still block the nation of Israel from accepting Jesus Christ as the promised Messiah and Redeemer of Mankind.
There were NO HUMANS CREATED when the plan of Salvation was made(Before the foundation of the world).
No counseller and no one can begin to fathom the depths of HIS MIND---
however, HE has revealed things about HIMSELF and HIS PLANS which are known.
In 1Cor. 2:16, Paul is saying the "natural man"/the unbeliever cannot understand the will of the Father because they are "foolishness" to an unbeliever. "Spiritual things are "Spiritually discerned."
The Believer has applied the admonition of Phil.2:5, "Let this mind be in you which was in Christ Jesus." and that was (John 12:49), "For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak." See John 14:10 also.
Therefore, The "Thus it is written" and the "Thus saith the Lord GOD" is the message for a right relationship to GOD and to one's fellow Beings. OBEY and LIVE.
