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Was Jesus Able to Commit Sin?

tumbleweed41

Resident Liberal Hippie
Lets address these one by one. First up: No first hand accounts of Jesus....Do you believe the accounts of Alexander the Great. We have no sources from his lifetime or soon after his death. We have only fragments of two works from about 100 years after his death. The truth is we base virtually everything we know about Alexander the Great from historians who wrote about him 300 to 500 years after his death. Yet history teachers use these references as "fact". If I denied that Alexander the Great ever existed and told you to prove that he did with contemporary writings from his time you couldn't do it. As a matter of fact I challenge you to do it. Do you believe the accounts of Alexander the Great? Why?

Alexander claimed to be the son of a God. Most of the early historians quote directly from Callisthenes, who wrote that Alexander was sired by Zeus himself. By your argument, we should accept this as wholly as Christians accept that Jesus was the son of a God.

You see, we are not arguing the existence of a Rabbi that we call Jesus. But rather his divine nature.
 

Composer

Member
Ok Green Kepi,

Here's my story book evidence that WISDOM is a female person -

Wisdom crieth without; she uttereth her voice in the streets: (Prov. 1:20) KJV story book

Thanks for your comments!
 
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Green Kepi

Active Member
Ok Green Kepi,

Here's my story book evidence that WISDOM is a female person -

Wisdom crieth without; she uttereth her voice in the streets: (Prov. 1:20) KJV story book

Thanks for your comments!

Please enlighten me as to what you are trying to say...what I read here is that wisdom is portrayed in this chapter as a young woman. Has nothing to do with the person of the Holy Spirit. Just as in Proverbs 9:1 where wisdom and folly are portrayed as rival young women, each preparing a feast and inviting people to it. But Wisdom is a responsible woman of character, while Folly is a prostitute serving stolen food. Wisdom appeals first to the mind. Folly to the senses. It is easier to excite the senses, but the pleasures of Folly are temporary. By contrast the satisfaction that wisdom brings lasts forever.

What am I missing in this if I have it wrong? Thanks for you time....
 

Composer

Member
Please enlighten me as to what you are trying to say...what I read here is that wisdom is portrayed in this chapter as a young woman. Has nothing to do with the person of the Holy Spirit. Just as in Proverbs 9:1 where wisdom and folly are portrayed as rival young women, each preparing a feast and inviting people to it. But Wisdom is a responsible woman of character, while Folly is a prostitute serving stolen food. Wisdom appeals first to the mind. Folly to the senses. It is easier to excite the senses, but the pleasures of Folly are temporary. By contrast the satisfaction that wisdom brings lasts forever.

What am I missing in this if I have it wrong? Thanks for you time....
That the story book uses various textual devices such as ' personification ' but you are misinterpreting that to mean ' literal ' when applied to the concept of a Holy Spirit ' person / he '.

IF the story book holy spirit were a ' person ' then Luke 1:35 tells us that this alleged holy spirit ' person ' came down and had relations with the other person Mary to cause her pregnancy and hence this alleged holy spirit person would be the literal father of this story book Jesus and NOT God the Father person as claimed?

However IF one accepts the story book text as it stands, it describes this alleged Holy Spirit not as ' a person ' but merely a power described or personified as a he. (e.g. And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever; John 14:16) KJV story book)

Just like wisdom is personified as a woman.

BTW: You corrupt the text even further by claiming this story book holy spirit of John 14:16 as a ' He ' when it says no such a thing but rather ' he '.
 

Green Kepi

Active Member
"You corrupt the text even further by claiming this story book holy spirit of John 14:16 as a ' He ' when it says no such a thing but rather ' he '"

Well...'hoop-te-do'...what is corrupted "by me" when the rest of the chapter from v.15 on is Jesus promising the Holy Spirit and He says that "...he lives in you"? But...I can see that your mind in set in concrete and you don't believe what you call the "story book". Kinda hung up on that description...aren't you?

Thanks for responding anyway...I won't bother or upset you anymore....
 

McBell

mantra-chanting henotheistic snake handler
BTW: You corrupt the text even further by claiming this story book holy spirit of John 14:16 as a ' He ' when it says no such a thing but rather ' he '.
so now you would base arguments on the capitalization in a translated translation?
Are you for real?
 

Composer

Member
so now you would base arguments on the capitalization in a translated translation?
Are you for real?
I really wish you would pay attention.

It was Green Kepi that corrupted the text further to say He when it said no such a thing.

I'm still waiting for any one to legitimately demonstrate the story book is the legitimate and literal Words of a God?

I've waited 60 years, perhaps you might break the 100% christian failure rate?

Here's your chance (again!) LOL!
 

McBell

mantra-chanting henotheistic snake handler
I really wish you would pay attention.

It was Green Kepi that corrupted the text further to say He when it said no such a thing.

I'm still waiting for any one to legitimately demonstrate the story book is the legitimate and literal Words of a God?

I've waited 60 years, perhaps you might break the 100% christian failure rate?

Here's your chance (again!) LOL!
I really wish you would actually pay attention to that which you yourself posts.
But it seems that would be asking far to much.


Oh well, guess I should not expect much from someone who merely jumps from one fallacy to another thinking they are making some Earth moving declaration.
 

Composer

Member
I really wish you would actually pay attention to that which you yourself posts.
But it seems that would be asking far to much.


Oh well, guess I should not expect much from someone who merely jumps from one fallacy to another thinking they are making some Earth moving declaration.
Green Kepi quoted ' He ' when the text stated ' he '.

You lose!
 

tumbleweed41

Resident Liberal Hippie
BTW: You corrupt the text even further by claiming this story book holy spirit of John 14:16 as a ' He ' when it says no such a thing but rather ' he '.

I really wish you would pay attention.

It was Green Kepi that corrupted the text further to say He when it said no such a thing.(again!) LOL!

Green Kepi quoted ' He ' when the text stated ' he '.

You lose!

The original Greek manuscripts were written in all upper case letters.
You are arguing over differing composition styles between Ancient Greek and Modern English.
:facepalm:
 

McBell

mantra-chanting henotheistic snake handler
The original Greek manuscripts were written in all upper case letters.
You are arguing over differing composition styles between Ancient Greek and Modern English.
:facepalm:
Perhaps you will be able to explain it in a way that gets through his thick skull.

I doubt it, but there is always a chance.
 

Green Kepi

Active Member
Green Kepi quoted ' He ' when the text stated ' he '.

You lose!

I can't help it...hard to not comment again like I said I would do...Composer...you are not hearing or understanding a word Tumbleweed41 or Mestemia are trying to convey to you! Get yourself some other version besides the KJV you use...try comparing some of the other ones. However...I'm getting the feeling...you're too busy trying to "win" to listen to anyone else....
 

Composer

Member
I can't help it...hard to not comment again like I said I would do...Composer...you are not hearing or understanding a word Tumbleweed41 or Mestemia are trying to convey to you! Get yourself some other version besides the KJV you use...try comparing some of the other ones. However...I'm getting the feeling...you're too busy trying to "win" to listen to anyone else....
Even Mestemia recognised and acknowledged you were NOT quoting from the Original Greek - http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/1934336-post86.html

Hence every word would have been in Greek and Capitalised, which it wasn't '.

I have many story book versions in English.

That's why I can check and know when others are misreprenting the text as you did and as others elsewhere have done.

(Out of interest are you or Mestemia Greek scholars that read and quote the original Greek story book text?)

velvet10.gif
 

Green Kepi

Active Member
Even Mestemia recognised and acknowledged you were NOT quoting from the Original Greek - http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/1934336-post86.html

Hence every word would have been in Greek and Capitalised, which it wasn't '. I have many story book versions in English.

That's why I can check and know when others are misreprenting the text as you did and as others elsewhere have done.

(Out of interest are you or Mestemia Greek scholars that read and quote the original Greek story book text?)



Sorry...can't buy that. We have no original manuscripts of the Greek letters nor do we even have copies of them.

So...based on something other than your opinion...what are you basing your opinion of my "misrepresenting" (which you misspelled anyway)....
 

jtartar

Well-Known Member
It seems to me that christians would consider Jesus unable to commit sin, since he was God (being part of the Trinity). Yet I don't understand how God could be tempted to sin, as is claimed about Jesus. Jesus was tempted by satan several times according to scripture. I see an inconsisency here. If Jesus is God, is he not incapable of sin? Yet if he were tempted to sin, it naturally follows that he would have been capable of commiting sin.

Can somebody shed light on this? It doesn't seem to make sense to me.

MSizer,
To understand the answer to your question you must first know exactly who Jesus was, and his relationship to the Almighty God.
Jesus was created by God as the first one of His creations, Col 1:15, Rev 3:14.
Proverbs goes further is explaining Jesus' roll in God's purpose, Pro 8:22-31. These scriptures are speaking about wisdom, but most Bible scholars realize that they are also speaking about God's only begotten son, the Word.
Since Jesus had been with God, Jehovah, for uncountable eons, God knew His son intamitely.
God knew that Jesus, even though he was a free moral agent, would not sin for any reason. God inspired His Book, The Holy Bible to be written. The Bible, many times gives prophecies about Jesus coming to earth to fulfill God's purpose. So, in this sense Jesus could not sin, because it was already written in God's word, what Jesus would do, and the Bible is always accurrate.
So, theoretically Jesus was able to sin, because he was just like us in that freedom, but God knew that he would not, so God knew that He could write, in advance what Jesus was going to do. Jesus did everything exactly as his Father would have done.
 
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