Featured Torah in Christianity

For several reasons:
1. Jesus didn't fulfill the prophecies of the messiah, therefore proclaiming him as messiah cannot be part of Judaism.
2. The Tanakh states four times that God is not a man -- obviously it was a critically important message to be so repeated. Any religion that says a certain man is God, is therefore antithetical to Judaism.
3. The heart and soul of the Torah and the rest of the Tanakh is obedience to God. Changing that message to belief in the messiah is therefore a change of religion.

 

It is the Father who is doing the adopting.
What makes you think you are part of the family? Do you have God's Spirit also?

 

1. Jesus fulfilled all the 'suffering servant' prophecies and promises to return to fulfil the rest. Which of the 'suffering servant' prophecies has he not fulfilled?
2. You're quite right. God is not a man. The question is whether the Messiah, the mediator between God and man, is fully God and fully man. There is only one mediator, and he's unique.
3. The heart of the Torah is holiness. This has not been achieved by any man accept Jesus Christ. Or, are you of the opinion that not all men are sinners?

 

Why have you chosen to ignore Revelation 19:13, when it confirms John 1:1? lt says that Jesus Christ is the Word of God, and it is through the Word that creation takes place [Colossians 1:14-19].

There are other NT passages that confirm the belief in Jesus Christ as the Word of God.

John clarifies his own Gospel when he says, 'For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one'. [1 John 5:7]

This makes clear that the Father can be distinguished from the Son, and from the Holy Spirit. The distinction is not in essence but in location, as Ephesians 4:6 tells us: 'One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through [amongst] all, and in you all'.

What you say about righteousness demonstrates a misunderstanding of the Gospel. The righteousness achieved by Jesus Christ in fulfilling the law can only be ours through faith in Him. Jesus did not tell people to follow a set of principles, he said, 'Follow me!'

By placing faith in Jesus Christ one receives the blessing of the Holy Spirit, the grace of God, which is also the righteousness of Christ. lt's the Holy Spirit that marks a person as being 'born again'.

You may, justifiably, ask why it is that people 'born again' of the Holy Spirit do not always bear witness to the righteousness within. The reason is that we are still living in the flesh, and the battle to walk by the Spirit, and not after the flesh, must be won. We are given the strength to do so, but we must also exhibit the will to do so.

Salvation is a process that begins with faith in Jesus as Saviour, but is not complete until the day of our resurrection (or rapture of the saints).

This is my understanding, and one l am happy to argue from scripture.

 

Sorry if you are not one of God's people, but I am. Show me one verse that says Gentiles will never be the people of God. Or show me one verse that says no one but Israel will ever be the people of God.

If something will come to pass, that in itself tells you there will be a change. If his house will be called a house of prayer for all people, that means anyone will be able to be one of his people.

To be technical, even Abraham wouldn't have been called a Jew, but he was one of God's people.

 

There are many other things also that were a part of the law that we are not under. Circumcision, sacrifices, stoning, etc.

 

You didn't provide any verses backing up what you had said. Since non-Jews already had a way to worship God before Christianity, what change happens to make his house a house of prayer for all people?

I also sent several posts to you previously that you didn't respond to. I will ask again because it is pertinent to the OP. Since God is perfect in all his ways. When he said he would make new heavens and a new earth, did that mean what he made the first time wasn't perfect? That being the case, why would him making a new covenant be any different?

 

I never said he would forsake Israel. I said he would turn to the Gentiles, and anyone from any nation can be his people.

You know it says the new heavens and the new earth that I make. (NOT made)

Another question: Are the Jews supposed to keep the law of Moses regarding stoning? See Deuteronomy 22:21-24 and Numbers 15:30-36 and Leviticus 20:13-27 and Leviticus 24:23

If not - why not?

 

Good fruit grows on good trees. What makes a tree 'good' is the Holy Spirit.

Jesus is not 'anointed' as the heir to the throne until his baptism by John. He doesn't declare himself as God's 'anointed' until he preaches at the synagogue in Nazareth [Luke 4:16].

The Holy Spirit overshadowed Mary, and there was a miracle of conception. Is there any reason why the Word should not be made flesh and live under the law before living by the Spirit? This would allow Jesus to be a mediator between two covenants.

Faith in Jesus Christ is not at the expense of works. It's all a matter of getting the order right! Ultimately, it's the faith of Christ in us that does the good works, otherwise we would have reason to boast.

This is my understanding.

 

1. For Christians, the Messiah did fulfill the prophecies. The Jews state the prophecies to mean what they think they should mean, not necessarily what God meant.

2. For me, NOT being a Trinitarian. The Messiah was in actuality, YHWH dwelling in a fleshly body. God is a Spirit, but he took on a body. The body was called the Son, because YHWH fathered the body. But YHWH chose to dwell in that body. So YHWH was not a man, but chose to dwell in the body of a man and sacrifice that body for our sins.

3. Do the Jews keep the law of Moses regarding stoning? See Deuteronomy 22:21-24 and Numbers 15:30-36 and Leviticus 20:13-27 and Leviticus 24:23 If not - why not?

 

The line in Is 56 about the temple being a house of prayer for people of all nations refers to those people who convert to Judaism, no matter what nations they come from. It deals with those who attach themselves to God (check the verse right before it). It is a promise of inclusion to those who find God in temple days - the next verse says that the number gathered to God would be more than the dispersed people (the Jews) because it would include converts. This idea is parallel to, but different from the apparently similar promise in the days of the first temple that even the prayers of non-Jews which weren't offered properly at the temple would be received by God -- 1 Kings 8:43. Check the Radak there, אף על פי שלא יהיה ראוי לכך תשמע תפלתו and a sentence later in which there is an explanation as to WHY those prayers will be accepted.[/QUOTE]