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Three Days and Three Nights

Elyah

New Member
Shalom rstrats, I will go ahead and let you keep this thread on topic, as you desire, but I would like to address Luke 24:21 before I leave.

Luke 24:21 appears to be a slam dunk in saying that Sunday was the third day, but it is far from that. The translators basically had a bias in translating this verse to follow their preconceived idea that Sunday was the third day. Sunday was not the third day, but rather the fourth day, and it is very easy to see once it has been expounded to you. It all hinges on the Greek word G71 (ago) that the translators ignored, and inserted an "is" instead of what this word truly means, "to lead away."

Here is that same word used by Luke in the previous chapter:


When Luke 24:21 is properly translated, it should be rendered thusly:

These two disciples were downcast, they were sad because THAT DAY was LEADING AWAY the third day, the third day had already come and gone as that Sunday (today) was leading the third day away (the previous day, the Sabbath). If they were saying that "today IS the third day," why be so sad, as there was yet time for their hope to come true?

So rstrats, don't let the mistranslation of Luke 24:21 keep you from properly understanding three days and three nights. Blessings in The Name, ImAHebrew.
Greetings rstrats and everyone,
ImAHebrew(aka Ken) added the word "away" and the word "fourth" to Luke 24:21, and even if the word " is" or" led G71 " is removed from the text, it still says quote " today led the third day since these things were done". Unquote. The word " led=G71" is here, and NOT "lead". The reason the translators used the word "is" here, it is because the word "to day" precedes it, and following it is "the third day" since these things were done .

This verse does NOT say "the fourth day", and neither is the word " AWAY" even in this text. Luke 24:1 says " first day of the week".

Luke 24:7 says " Saying, G3004 G3754 The Son G5207 of man G444 must G1163 be delivered G3860 into G1519 the hands G5495 of sinful G268 men, G444 and G2532 be crucified, G4717 and G2532 the third G5154 day G2250 rise again. G450

Luke 24:46 says " And G2532 said G2036 unto them, G846 Thus G3754 G3779 it is written, G1125 and G2532 thus G3779 it behoved G1163 Christ G5547 to suffer, G3958 and G2532 to rise G450 from G1537 the dead G3498 the third G5154 day: G2250

Here below is the entire Luke 24:21 verse using the Blue Letter Bible Strong's Concordance of the Greek K.J.V.

But G1161 we G2249 trusted G1679 that G3754 it had been G2076 he G846 which should G3195 have redeemed G3084 Israel: G2474 and G235 beside G1065 G4862 all G3956 this, G5125 to day G4594 is G71(led) the G5026 third G5154 day G2250 since G575 G3739 these things G5023 were done. G1096 Luke 24:21. See here...Blue Letter Bible - Search Results for KJV

These 4 verses together tells you, the "first day of the week" is "the third day" plain and simple. Don't let anyone deceive you by any means.

YAH(See Psalms 68:4 N.K.J.V.) Bless!

Eliyahu C.
 
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rstrats

Active Member
If the first day of the week is the third day since something was done, what day of the week would be the first day since the something was done?
 

rstrats

Active Member
I should also have included in the OP: "...and who thinks that the "heart of the earth" is referring to the tomb.
 

rstrats

Active Member
Domenic,
re: "Nerissa,
re: " I read some years ago, the Jews counted a half day as a full day."

But did you ever read where they counted a period of time as a night when no part of a night was involved?
 

rstrats

Active Member
Perhaps a further rewording of the OP will make it a bit more clear: Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day of the week crucifixion folks, they frequently assert that it is using common Jewish idiomatic language. I wonder if anyone knows of any writing that shows an example from the first century or before regarding a period of time that is said to consist of a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights where the period of time absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights? If it is using common idiomatic language, there ought to be examples of that usage in order to be able to make that assertion.
 

Tumah

Veteran Member
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that the phrase "x" days and "x"nights was ever used in the first century or before when it didn’t include at least parts of the "x" days and at least parts of the "x" nights?
Here are four instances that I found in the Talmud.
...A note fell from Heaven in Pumbeditha, 'Rabbah bar Nahmani is requested above (ie. he's dead)'. Abaye and Rava and all the Rabbis went out to toil in him (ie. bury). But they didn't know his whereabouts.They saw birds flying around and standing. They said, "It must be that he is here." They eulogized him for three days and three nights. A note fell, 'Anyone who leaves, shall be in excommunication.' They eulogized him for seven days. A note fell, 'Go to your houses in peace.'...
...And Rabbah bar bar Hanna said, 'One time, we were going by ship and the ship sailed between one fin and the other fin of the fish for three days and three nights. It was going up [river] and we were going down...
...He that destroyed the Temple, and he ruined the Sanctuary and he killed all the righteous and he exiled Israel from their land and he is still dancing among us. You only gave him to us in order to be rewarded. We do not want him and we do not want his reward. A note fell to them from Heaven that was written on it, 'Truth'... They sat in fasting for three days and three nights. He was given to them. He came out like a fiery cub from the house of the Holy of Holies...
...Rav Assi said, 'Three hundred thousand [with] drawn swords went up to Tur Malka (name of place) and killed there for three days and three nights. And on the other side was feasting and holiday. And this side did not know about that side...

There is also:
1 Same 30:12 "Because he had not eaten bread and not drank water for three days and three nights.
Jonah 2:1 "And Jonah was in the guts of the fish, three days and three nights.
 
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rstrats

Active Member
Tumah,

I'm afraid I don't see where your quotes show that at least a portion of each one of the three daytimes and/or at least a portion of each one of the three night times couldn't have been involved.
 

Tumah

Veteran Member
Tumah,

I'm afraid I don't see where your quotes show that at least a portion of each one of the three daytimes and/or at least a portion of each one of the three night times couldn't have been involved.
Sorry, I was trying to say that "three days and three nights" does seem to mean an actual "three days and three nights." There is a concept of "partial days" counting as entire days. But when discussing that, the actual phrase "partial day" is used, not some idiom.
 

rstrats

Active Member
Someone new looking in who thinks the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week and who tries to get around Matthew 12:40 by saying it is using common idiomatic language of the period may know of some writing to support the idea that it was common.
 

rstrats

Active Member
Tumah,

re: "There is a concept of 'partial days' counting as entire days."



As regards the Jewish practice of counting any part of a day as a whole day I would agree, but when nights is added to days to yield the phrase "3 days AND 3 nights" it normally refers to a measurement of a consecutive time period where day refers to the light portion of a 24 hour period and night refers to the dark portion of a 24 hour period. No one In the history of apologetics as far as I know has ever presented any historical documentation that the phrase "x" days and/or"x" nights was a first century idiom of Hebrew/Aramaic/Greek which could mean something different than what the phrase means in English.. If anyone has such documentation, I would very much like to see it.
 

Unification

Well-Known Member
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that the phrase "x" days and "x"nights was ever used in the first century or before when it didn’t include at least parts of the "x" days and at least parts of the "x" nights?

There are 7 phases, or periods in which a temple(brain/mind) is destroyed and rebuilt... The sixth phase the ego is crucified at the place of the skull, the seventh phase, the resurrection occurs internally and the conscious and subconscious mind integrate into one.
 

lostwanderingsoul

Well-Known Member
the reason people say Jesus died on Friday is because the next day was a sabbath. But there are two kinds of sabbaths. the weekly sabbath is every Saturday but annual sabbaths only happen once a year and can be any day of the week. the annual Passover sabbath was in the week Jesus died and was probably on Thursday. that would mean He died on Wednesday and there would be three days and nights between then and Sunday morning. there is really no proof that He rose on Sunday morning. when the women went there very early, before the sun was up, the tomb was already empty. Jesus could have risen late Saturday evening.
 

rstrats

Active Member
Unification,
re: "There are 7 phases, or periods in which a temple(brain/mind) is destroyed and rebuilt... The sixth phase the ego is crucified at the place of the skull, the seventh phase, the resurrection occurs internally and the conscious and subconscious mind integrate into one."

Huh?
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
Unification,
re: "There are 7 phases, or periods in which a temple(brain/mind) is destroyed and rebuilt... The sixth phase the ego is crucified at the place of the skull, the seventh phase, the resurrection occurs internally and the conscious and subconscious mind integrate into one."

Huh?
I think he is including the other stages of self realization, whereas you seem to be focused on three. That's how I read it, anyway.:thumbsup:
 
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