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Three Days and Three Nights

Discussion in 'General Religious Debates' started by rstrats, Oct 28, 2012.

  1. rstrats

    rstrats Active Member

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  2. rstrats

    rstrats Active Member

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    Again, this topic is concerned with only 1 issue:

    1. The Messiah said that He would be three days and three nights in the "heart of the earth"

    2. There are those who think that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with the resurrection taking place on the 1st day of the week.

    3. Of those, there are some who think that the "heart of the earth" is referring to the tomb.

    4. A 6th day of the week crucifixion/1st day of the week resurrection allows for only 2 nights to be involved.

    5. To account for the lack of a 3rd night, there may be some of those mentioned above who say that the Messiah was employing common figure of speech/colloquial language.

    6. I'm simply asking anyone who falls in that group of believers if they might provide examples to support that belief of commonality; i.e., instances where a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime and/or no part of the night time could have occurred.
     
  3. user4578

    user4578 Member

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    I believe the best answer you are going to get in terms of what you vaguely here are calling commonality was in post #108 by Metis. This is the commonality upon which the phrase is based, not some common idiom. Nonetheless, the closest possible idiom of which I would be aware would be 1 Samuel 30:12, which 'might' align to the specification of the OP, though not necessarily since the Egyptian could have slept without food/drink the first night(logically), but if the phrase started after the Egyptian got sick(1Sa 30:13 - lit. I fell sick three days) then it might be an example of an inclusion of a night to a time period of sickness when he was not actually sick. I adhere however to the first commonality, that is, the set of examples where the day is said to have started and ended at evening, of which set of examples you have already stated is off topic. As far as the characteristic of that night, it was stated elsewhere that perhaps it were the period of darkness which started at noon(cmp. Amos 8:9), which with a few other concessions(Luke 23:43, John 20:1), might be true, but is nonetheless unprovable. I think in the least your query has been answered with regard to the end of day three being attributed to the amount of time he said he would spend in the grave(1Sa 20:18-19;27;35, Mark 8:31), that is, that 'three days' does not necessarily imply 72 hours.
     
    #303 user4578, Jul 2, 2019
    Last edited: Jul 2, 2019
  4. rstrats

    rstrats Active Member

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    user4578,
    re: "I believe the best answer you are going to get in terms of what you vaguely here are calling commonality..."

    What is vague about the word?



    re: "...was in post #108 by Metis."

    Nowhere in his post did he provide examples where a daytime or a night time was said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could occur.



    re: "...the closest possible idiom of which I would be aware would be 1 Samuel 30:12, which 'might' align to the specification of the OP, though not necessarily..."

    But I'm looking for examples that "necessarily" do align to the specification of the OP. And they don't necessarily have to be from scripture. Any examples from the period will be acceptable.



    re: "I think in the least your query has been answered with regard to the end of day three being attributed to the amount of time he said he would spend in the grave(1Sa 20:18-19;27;35, Mark 8:31), that is, that 'three days' does not necessarily imply 72 hours."

    I haven't said anything about a 72 hour requirement.
     
  5. user4578

    user4578 Member

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    The saying from Jonah would constitute an example of this, the very reason the first night is sought for to complete the phrase. Calendrically speaking, the first night would be included regardless of whether he died that afternoon, as well the end of the third regardless of the fact that he rose when it was 'dark' that morning. There are basically two interpretations then floating around, the calendrical one, and the non-calendrical one, where as in after three days meant after the third day started, not when it ended. Both of them are true, according to their appropriate context; one rounds up, the other tells it how it was. Also at issue here is the definition of what should constitute 'commonality', either the biblical defiinition of a 'day' or the insinuation that the phrase was a 'common' idiom, for which unless a parallel idiom should be found, then it may not be assumed to be properly understood. Supposing one was found, how would it interact with the biblical notion of the length of a day, 'evening to evening'(Lev 23:32); would it not potentially override the idea that his statement in Matthew 12:38-40 was based on this precept? Would it be a parallel idiom that itself would be based on this precept?
     
  6. rstrats

    rstrats Active Member

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    Perhaps someone new visiting this topic may know of examples.
     
  7. paarsurrey

    paarsurrey Veteran Member

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    The period is not the essence of the Sign of Jonah, the essence is not dying and or continue surviving is the essence of Sign of Jonah.

    Regards
     
  8. rstrats

    rstrats Active Member

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    paarsurrey,
    re: "The period is not the essence of the Sign of Jonah, the essence is not dying and or continue surviving is the essence of Sign of Jonah."


    That would be an issue for a different topic.
     
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