I understand. One scripture alone is not enough to prove a point. I'm sure
Athanasius when making his argument, did not use this one scripture only.
The following scripture reminds me of
Colossians 1:15-17. At Isaiah God is saying that he is the maker of
all things just like when it says at Col 1:15-17 that Jesus, the word, created
All Things. And notice that God says "
BY Myself" and "
All Alone"
Isaiah, 44:24, "Thus says the LORD, your Redeemer, and the one who formed you from the womb, 'I, the LORD,
am the maker of all things, stretching out the heavens
by Myself, and spreading out the earth
all alone.'"
Yahweh alone is the Creator. There is only one, as it says in Genesis 1:1, but the holy spirit was the facilitator. Likewise all things came into existence "through" the son as another facilitator. He was the fabricator of the raw materials that God brought into existence. The raw materials of creation were not a product of the son but of the Father through the use of his dynamic energy....his spirit.
The son was at his Father's side, no doubt following his instructions according to Proverbs 8:30-31.
He is the "us" and "our" in Genesis 1:26-27.
How can God create all things and by himself if Jesus also created all things? One can easily conclude that God was the word.
There is more than one way to interpret the words of scripture. But they all have to mesh because God does not contradict himself. If something is out of line with the rest of scripture, then something is wrong with our understanding and needs deeper study.
Revelation ch 3 indicates two things......verse 12 states...
"‘The one who conquers—I will make him a pillar in the temple of my God, and he will by no means go out from it anymore, and I will write upon him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God, the New Jerusalem that descends out of heaven from my God, and my own new name."
This statement from the resurrected Jesus indicates that 1) four times in one verse, his Father is still his God even in heaven.....the trinity denies this.
Verse 14 says....
"....These are the things that the Amen says, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation by God".
2) He is a creation of his Father......the very first of a vast number of "sons". (Even Adam as a direct creation is called a "son of God". Luke 3:38)
If the pre-human Jesus was described as "the beginning of the Creation by God", then that explains why he alone out of all the "sons of God", is described as "only begotten". This son was the first and only direct creation of his Father.....who alone is the Almighty.
In John 1:1 the Word is described as being "with God" "in the beginning"....don't we have to ask, "the beginning of what?" God did not have a beginning but his son as a creation of his Father did.
Then we have to ask..."how can you be "WITH" someone and at the same time "BE" that same someone?" Since God created logic, how can the state of his existence be illogical. The trinity is an illogical nonsense scripturally speaking.....concocted no doubt by God's arch enemy to fool people into worshiping another god, and therefore breaking the First Commandment, which separates them from him.
Nowhere in all of scripture does Jesus confess to being the Almighty.....there can only be one....but there are many "mighty gods" described in scripture. Jesus is one of them in the true definition of "theos". Human judges in Israel carried that title because of their divinely constituted authority....so did Jesus.
How or why would God hide his true nature from his trusted servants in Bible times? Abraham, who is the only man described in the Bible as "God's friend", never once even hinted that his God was anything other than a single entity who valued his uniqueness as
"the Most High over all the earth"...there is no one higher the "the
Most High". (Psalm 83:18 KJV)
Food for thought....?
