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Featured The sound of God's name

Discussion in 'General Religious Debates' started by Ashley Mathura, Oct 11, 2017.

  1. pearl

    pearl Well-Known Member

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    Known only through Scripture.
    God is by essence one. For this reason he cannot enter into the world of the gods as one among many; he cannot have one name among others. "I am who I am"—he is without any qualification.
     
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  2. QuestioningMind

    QuestioningMind Well-Known Member

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    Yes, they are equally as powerful... which is to say that neither has any inherent power at all.
     
  3. Profound Realization

    Profound Realization Active Member

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    "God" is just a word. "Name" in my perception would refer to "nature or character."
     
  4. jackvincent

    jackvincent Member

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    Chanting God’s various names as a mantra will bring you closer to the Divine. Our languages come out of nature which is direct link to the Creator. Base languages like Sanskrit will always yield “better” results than more advanced languages like English. Look into root words as well.
     
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  5. निताइ dasa

    निताइ dasa Nitai's servant's servant

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    Yes, there is a verse from the upanishads,

    "oḿ pūrṇam adaḥ pūrṇam idaḿ
    pūrṇāt pūrṇam udacyate
    pūrṇasya pūrṇam ādāya
    pūrṇam evāvaśiṣyate"

    "He who is complete here, is complete there. From complete emanates only completeness. If one takes a complete portion from the complete, then what only remains is also complete"


    Many interpretations, but our school of Vsishnavism interprets this as follows.

    God, is complete and perfect, and so are His associated characteristics, like His Name, Form, Qualities and Pastimes. They are non-different and equal in power to Him. God Name is ontologically equal to God (both the syllables and the sound). When God descends into this world as an Avatar, His Name also descends. It isSad-Cid-Amanda (eternal, conscious and blissful).

    In fact the Name is more merciful than God Himself, because we can call on His Name at any time, any place. It is the most sublime form of practice in this age.
     
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  6. Jedster

    Jedster Well-Known Member

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    Oh...just remembered that I used to help run a community cafe called SO HUNGry.
     
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  7. Nakosis

    Nakosis Time Efficient Lollygagger
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    Cool!
     
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  8. Sunray75

    Sunray75 Member

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    since some are deaf and blind i would imagine a feeling would be most effective
     
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  9. Ashley Mathura

    Ashley Mathura New Member

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    Yes - the written name.
     
  10. leibowde84

    leibowde84 Veteran Member

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    Isn't it the same thing. The sound of the word "God" doesn't seem that powerful. But, maybe I am missing something.
     
  11. Ponder This

    Ponder This Well-Known Member

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    Do you mean like if God's name was a visual only phenomenon? Or like if God's audio only version is less powerful than if it was visual and auditory? Or like if God's name has an inaudible fragrance? Or like if God's name is just a thought form that takes whatever physical form it happens to take, then would it matter?

    And powerful in what way? What is the effect of God's name? And how is that effect more or less powerful in it's audio only format? I assume you don't refer to the volume of the auditory manifestation? Obviously, a loud enough sound can have some pretty potent effects on the environment. And if you don't mean the volume at which God's name manifests, then is there at least a minimum volume requirement? Or a specific volume requirement (so if God's name manifested below the threshold of human hearing it would still be just as "powerful")? Maybe the sound of God's name has a powerful effect when it is at the right volume to be heard and understood by someone who is listening.

    So if I say , "Hey Ashley!" does it have an effect if you don't hear me say it? And if the physical manifestation of God's name is not what makes it powerful, then I suppose that it doesn't matter. The sound exists only because it is manifesting the essential, immaterial, transcendental form.
     
  12. RabbiO

    RabbiO הרב יונה בן זכריה

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    Apparently I was less clear than I intended. Sorry about that.

    My question was whether you were certain that the proper translation of G-d's response to Moses' question, אהיה אשר אהיה, is "I am who I am".
     
  13. DavidFirth

    DavidFirth Well-Known Member

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    I'm interested in what you think about it. Please elaborate.
     
  14. Father Heathen

    Father Heathen Veteran Member

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    We name god for our own convenience.
     
  15. pearl

    pearl Well-Known Member

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    I believe this is Moses' interpretation of his mystical experience of God. To be 'certain' of the "I am who I am" one would have to believe that God spoke 'words'. I do not.
     
  16. Yohanan ben Yaaqov

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    The Hebrew phrase – אֶהְיֶה אֲשֶׁר אֶהְיֶהʾeh’yeh ʾăsher ʾeh’yeh as found in Sh’mot 3:14 is I shall be that which I shall be. Just for the record there is no way to say “I am” in Hebrew, therefore “I am who I am” or “I am that I am” are deceitful translations.
     
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  17. RabbiO

    RabbiO הרב יונה בן זכריה

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    Now I am being to feel a little frustrated at my lack of communication skills. Let me try again.

    According to the Torah (Exodus 3:14), the response from G-d -be it heard, or intuited, or interpreted by Moses - regarding the question as to whom Moses should say sent him was - אהיה אשר אהיה

    You indicated in your posts that the response of G-d, translated into English, to the question was to say "I am" or more fully "I am who I am." I simply asked the question whether you were certain that the translation you used for Ehyeh asher Ehyeh (the transliteration of the Hebrew) was correct.
     
  18. RabbiO

    RabbiO הרב יונה בן זכריה

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    I would suggest you take a deep breath and then eat a prune danish with a nice cup of hot tea. It will help calm you down.

    There is a big difference between being deceitful and simply being incorrect.
     
    #38 RabbiO, Oct 13, 2017
    Last edited: Oct 13, 2017
  19. Yohanan ben Yaaqov

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    The fact that every single instance of the word, outside the three occurrences in Sh'mot 3:14, is translated correctly, is proof enough to me that they are being deceitful. They are purposefully mistranslating it "I am" in order to connect it with John 8:58. That is deceptive.
     
  20. pearl

    pearl Well-Known Member

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    Then would you explain this;
    Thus, in v. 13, he is asking God a very specific and pointed question: "What is your name?" God’s answer, however, is anything but straightforward:

    וַיֹּאמֶר אֱלֹהִים אֶל מֹשֶׁה אֶהְיֶה אֲשֶׁר אֶהְיֶה. 3:14

    אֶהְיֶה.
    And God said to Moses, "I am what I am."

    Much of the Gospels are a translation using the Septuagint, not the Hebrew.


    .
     
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