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"The only-begotten God" in Jn 1:18

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
post two of two

Pegg said : “ I have not given you the scriptures which give us the time frame yet because i feel we need to first be clear about whether John wrote about the war in heaven as a future or past event.”

This discussion has always been about when Satan was cast out of heaven and the war in heaven occured. You have said it occured before the creation of Adam and Eve. But i need you to honestly ask yourself whether Johns vision was of a future of past event...

So based on revelations account of that war in heaven, can you tell me if you think it is showing a vision of the future or the past?



Pegg, I disagree about the context of our discussion. The discussion was about how and WHEN the angel Lucifer became an enemy to God, which was then the cause of him being cast out of heaven. (presumably if the angel Lucifer had NOT become an enemy, then he would NOT have been cast out of heaven at all...) These are related issues. The early Christians, as I have shown, believed Lucifer became an enemy to God BEFORE he interacted with Adam and Eve in the garden of Eden. There had already been one disagreement and in the Garden of Eden, Satan was NOT acting as a loyal angel of God, at that point in time.

These are Jewish texts. The Talmud (Midrash HaGadol) points out that the context of the narative, Satan, as the serpent was an evil inclination. Rashi (from Midrash also points out he is lying to Eve and is, already a deciever when he encounters the couple in the Garden. Stones printed i.e. Chumash refers to the sages (the earliest rabbis of renown) discuss the evil tactics of this Evil one. Micrash HaNe'elam explains that the Satans most common wiles to seduce any Jew to disobey God are simply models of Satans behaviour in the Garden. The entire narrative was written with this very context in the minds of the Jews who edited them in the earliest Jewish textual histories we have.

Pegg, you remain confused about early Judeo-Christian historical tradition. Your generalization of "revelations" as speaking only of "future" events is simplistic to the point that it cannot create a realistic model for timelines as they occur in revelations (or any text for that matter)

PAST EVENTS in early Christian theology :
Obviously, the early Judeo-Christian and Islamic texts describe their belief that Lucifer was already an enemy and a liar and was disloyal to God by the time he interacts with Adam and Eve in the Garden of Eden. The believed that Lucifer had already been cast down onto the earth by the time he meets Adam and Eve, thus he is on earth and not in heaven. The historical texts described the reasons for the animosity and dispute between God and the angel Lucifer in great detail AND they describe the reason for the Devils animosity with Adam in great detail.

When Jesus speaks of seeing the Devil fall from heaven “like lightning” in Luke 10:18, I believe Jesus is referring to an even in his past (the text and context there is in past tense). THESE specific references refer to past events. However, the Christian texts also have references to events CURRENT in reference to the Life of Jesus and others.

PRESENT EVENTS in Jesus Life :
THESE references referred to PRESENT and ongoing disagreement and interaction between Jesus and the Devil described in Matthew chapt 4 when it describes the devil trying tempt Jesus to prove his divinity. If he casts out a devil, this was an event current to his life. It was not a past or future event. However, there ARE textual references to a future and final conflict with Satan, leading up to his ultimate loss of power and influence. For example :

FUTURE EVENTS :
Your theory that Revelations 1:1 speaks only of future events and thus all of the book refers to future events is irrational since the revelation speaks of events of the past, events of the present, and events to yet occur in the future. If you read further on, you will see references to past, present AND future events referred to in the book of revelations.

The mixture of past, present, and future

The past
: For example in the second chapter and, to the churches of Ephesus, Smyrna, and Pergamum, John is to write of past events : men tested (v2), love abandoned (v 4), works done at first (5), past words of Jesus, the first and the last (v8), the past days “of Antipas…who was killed” (v 13)

The present : In the same chapter (ch 2) he is to write of present things such as “you are enduring patiently” (v2); “you are bearing up” (v 2); “you hate the works of the Nicolaitans” (v 6) ; “your tribulation and your poverty (v 9), “the slander of those…” (v 9); “I know where you dwell…” (v 13) etc.

The future : In the same chapter, there are examples of future events such as : “If not, I will come to you…” (v 5); “To him who conquers, I will grant…” (vs 7); “what you are about to suffer…” (v 10); “you will have tribulation…” (v 10);

The mixture of time within phrases : Some sentences have past, present, and future events within just a few show phrases : For example : “…you also have some who hold the teachings of the Nicolaitans (past and present). Repent then. If not, I will come to you soon and war against them…(future).



Pegg, If it helps you to get on with your presentation as to why you think Oct 1st, 1914 is the day after which the Devil was cast out of the presence of God, lets agree to assume that the text of Revelations 12 IS speaking ONLY, of the great and final escatological battle (without having another contextual reference...), where, having accomplished his purposes for mortal mankind, God finishes the Devils influence and power.

Why don’t you then, continue on with your presentation of October 1st as the day, after which the devil is cast out of heaven. Since you claim that your theology comes from the Bible, can you give us the biblical references which show this date? Also, since you claim that the Bible the Jehovahs Witnesses created, comes from a study of the original language, will you please, carefully explain any deviation from the Greek text when you quote from the Jehovahs Witness bible?

Thank you for your time and effort on this point Pegg.


Clear
ακφυσεω
 
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Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
I noticed that in my hurry to type a note and then start my work day, I made editing errors in the above note. I corrected them so I hope you will see the difference. I also added thoughts regarding the commentary on Satan in the Garden from the Talmud (a chumash).

Pegg, I think you are doing very well in your discussions so far. I do not think I might do any better if I was to try to discuss some unusual historical doctrines in early Judeo-Christian worldviews. Please know that I understand that apologetics are not an easy thing to do well. It is, much easier to criticise and discount ANY doctrine, than to support it.

THANK YOU for your efforts and time. I think I have been unpatient with you and I apologize. I'm stressed for time and it simply came through in my posts. I'm sorry.

Clear
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
Pegg, I disagree about the context of our discussion. The discussion was about how and WHEN the angel Lucifer became an enemy to God, which was then the cause of him being cast out of heaven. (presumably if the angel Lucifer had NOT become an enemy, then he would NOT have been cast out of heaven at all...) These are related issues. The early Christians, as I have shown, believed Lucifer became an enemy to God BEFORE he interacted with Adam and Eve in the garden of Eden. There had already been one disagreement and in the Garden of Eden, Satan was NOT acting as a loyal angel of God, at that point in time.

These are Jewish texts. The Talmud (Midrash HaGadol) points out that the context of the narative, Satan, as the serpent was an evil inclination. Rashi (from Midrash also points out he is lying to Eve and is, already a deciever when he encounters the couple in the Garden. Stones printed i.e. Chumash refers to the sages (the earliest rabbis of renown) discuss the evil tactics of this Evil one. Micrash HaNe'elam explains that the Satans most common wiles to seduce any Jew to disobey God are simply models of Satans behaviour in the Garden. The entire narrative was written with this very context in the minds of the Jews who edited them in the earliest Jewish textual histories we have.

Was it not your yourself who asked for this information from the bible?

You asked me to show from the bible why we believe Satan was not cast out of heaven until after 1914. And from the bible, we read in the book of Revelation that war broke out in heaven when Christ was enthroned as the King of Gods kingdom...


Revelation 12:1
Then a great sign was seen in heaven: A woman+ was arrayed* with the sun, and the moon was beneath her feet, and on her head was a crown of 12 stars, 2 and she was pregnant. And she was crying out in her pains and in her agony to give birth.

3 Another sign was seen in heaven. Look! A great fiery-colored dragon,+ with seven heads and ten horns and on its heads seven diadems;* 4 and its tail drags a third of the stars+ of heaven, and it hurled them down to the earth.+ And the dragon kept standing before the woman+ who was about to give birth, so that when she did give birth, it might devour her child.

5 And she gave birth to a son,+ a male, who is to shepherd all the nations with an iron rod.+ And her child was snatched* away to God and to his throne. 6 And the woman fled into the wilderness, where she has a place prepared by God and where they would feed her for 1,260 days.+

7 And war broke out in heaven: Mi′cha·el*

This is the vision that John saw... a woman gave birth to a son who is to shepherd all the nations... then the dragon tried to devour the child. What happens next is that War broke out in heaven.

John recieved this vision in the first century. So our view is exactly what it says here in the bible. Jesus is the male child, the dragon is Satan the devil and the woman is Gods heavenly kingdom. When Jesus was enthroned, war broke out in heaven and Satan was finally thrown out of heaven.

Vs 12 goes onto say:
On this account be glad, you heavens and you who reside in them! Woe for the earth and for the sea,+because the Devil has come down to you, having great anger, knowing that he has a short period of time.”

Unless you can accept that this vision given to John was for a future time, then there is no more to say about it. I can't show you the scriptures which lead us to the date of 1914 because understanding that this passage refers to a future time is integral to understanding our 1914 position.

 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Pegg said “ You asked me to show from the bible why we believe Satan was not cast out of heaven until after 1914. And from the bible, we read in the book of Revelation that war broke out in heaven when Christ was enthroned as the King of Gods kingdom... “

Yes, I did ask you to do that. Pegg, thank you for your information and explanation as to why the Jehovahs Witnesses believe that Satan was cast out of heaven after October 1st, 1914.

Clear
 
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we-live-now

Active Member
Genesis 1:26 Hebrew Text Analysis
Hi Clear,

Yes that is correct.

Jesus is a created being. At one time he did not exist...the only existing being was God the Almighty Father. But at some point in the distant past, he chose to begin his creation and the very first of his creations was a being like himself made in his image and in his likeness. That person was Jesus and in his pre-human form he was also the chief of all the angels...the bible calls him Michael the Arch Angel.

And yes, Jesus is subject to God Almighty (Jehovah) as we can see from the scriptures:

1 Cor 15:24  Next, the end, when he hands over the Kingdom to his God and Father, when he has brought to nothing all government and all authority and power. 25 For he must rule as king until God has put all enemies under his feet. 26 And the last enemy, death, is to be brought to nothing. 27 For God “subjected all things under his feet.” But when he says that ‘all things have been subjected,’ it is evident that this does not include the One who subjected all things to him. 28 But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him, that God may be all things to everyone.


We know that Jesus holds all authority in heaven and on earth... but its only for a limited time. Once the completion of Gods purpose is fulfilled and Christ has fulfilled his assigned role, he will then subject himself to God Almighty so that 'God may be all things to everyone' .

So this scripture really shows us that Christs authority is given to him for a set time and set purpose. And once Jesus submits himself to God, I have to wonder who the trinitarians will subject themselves to because right now they really have no idea who the Father is.... to them, Jesus is God.

Hi,

I really like how the Jehovah's dig deeper into scripture than any other group I have encountered. However, I believe that scripture says that the true Jesus is NOT a created being. He is a BORN or THE, single, unique, spiritually "birthed" son of the father (God) himself. If he were created (Strong's 6213), he would perish and die. He is God's SON and he was (spiritually) birthed or bara' (Strong's 1254) and not "created" or formed like created things that die or asah (Strong's 6213).

Here is a great thing to do. Study the original words of Genesis 1:26 and 1:27 and Genesis 5:1-2 closely and see what is really happening. Here is a link to Genesis 1:26 with clickable links. God first tells a group he addresses to as "us" to MAKE (Strong's 6213) man in OUR image. If we have 3 standing there, how many different images would man be "made" or created into? 3. But in one body.

Now, please notice the active words "make" which is a created being using "asah" (Strong's 6213). (Not a spiritually born being!) This is Genesis 1:26 and this occurs FIRST. Then, look at what happens in Genesis 1:27! It's really scandalous when you see what God's Word truly reveals.

God himself (one of the 3 or 4) turns around and he doesn't "make" (6213) but rather he BIRTHS (Strong's 1254) man which is totally different. This is an actual spiritual offspring of God himself. His son. My friends, this is NOT the same "made" man in the image of "us" of Genesis 1:26! This is what we call the "new creation" who is Jesus himself or the "wheat". Genesis 1:26 is the "tares" who will die as they come first. They will die because they are not spiritually birthed in Holy union with the father (like the Son), but were split as "male and female" under law. Both "grow together" in the SAME (spiritual) body but in separate natural bodies.

Again, please notice that in Gen 1:27 God "births" two types of offspring. One is already named man when he was born/birthed but is referred to as "him" at first. The second type is both "male and female" and is referred to by "them" in Gen 1:27 and 5:2. However, God reveals in Gen 5:2 that he gave the SAME name of "man" to "them" (split, male and female version) as well. There really are TWO creations of man being revealed here!

One is ALREADY man BEFORE he appeared in this creation (first part of Gen 1:26 referred to as "him") and the second was "split" into male and female (referred to as "them"). God also named the split version "man" as well which is why we don't see this. On the outside all look the same and are named "man". Ponder Matthew 13 in the parable of the wheat and the tares. Our outer man is the "tares" who is male or female. Our inner man is Jesus the son of God, the wheat, the original (but hidden) spiritual man. Jesus, the one true spiritual son of God is both the first and the last Adam. He was/is the spiritual template/master of all people alive regardless of their beliefs. Christ is all and in all. Col 3:11 We will all be revealed this one day according to the fathers perfect will and timing. 1 Tim 2:6, 1 Cor 15:22-23. This is the TRULY good news.

I wrote more on my blog as I keep hearing more and more on Genesis when studying the original language and not man's translation or interpretation. Please look into these things as they are very good!

Genesis on Kickedoutofchurch.com

God bless,
Duane
 

Kolibri

Well-Known Member
Genesis 1:26 Hebrew Text Analysis

Hi,

I really like how the Jehovah's dig deeper into scripture than any other group I have encountered. However, I believe that scripture says that the true Jesus is NOT a created being. He is a BORN or THE, single, unique, spiritually "birthed" son of the father (God) himself. If he were created (Strong's 6213), he would perish and die. He is God's SON and he was (spiritually) birthed or bara' (Strong's 1254) and not "created" or formed like created things that die or asah (Strong's 6213).

Here is a great thing to do. Study the original words of Genesis 1:26 and 1:27 and Genesis 5:1-2 closely and see what is really happening. Here is a link to Genesis 1:26 with clickable links. God first tells a group he addresses to as "us" to MAKE (Strong's 6213) man in OUR image. If we have 3 standing there, how many different images would man be "made" or created into? 3. But in one body.

Now, please notice the active words "make" which is a created being using "asah" (Strong's 6213). (Not a spiritually born being!) This is Genesis 1:26 and this occurs FIRST. Then, look at what happens in Genesis 1:27! It's really scandalous when you see what God's Word truly reveals.

God himself (one of the 3 or 4) turns around and he doesn't "make" (6213) but rather he BIRTHS (Strong's 1254) man which is totally different. This is an actual spiritual offspring of God himself. His son. My friends, this is NOT the same "made" man in the image of "us" of Genesis 1:26! This is what we call the "new creation" who is Jesus himself or the "wheat". Genesis 1:26 is the "tares" who will die as they come first. They will die because they are not spiritually birthed in Holy union with the father (like the Son), but were split as "male and female" under law. Both "grow together" in the SAME (spiritual) body but in separate natural bodies.

Again, please notice that in Gen 1:27 God "births" two types of offspring. One is already named man when he was born/birthed but is referred to as "him" at first. The second type is both "male and female" and is referred to by "them" in Gen 1:27 and 5:2. However, God reveals in Gen 5:2 that he gave the SAME name of "man" to "them" (split, male and female version) as well. There really are TWO creations of man being revealed here!

One is ALREADY man BEFORE he appeared in this creation (first part of Gen 1:26 referred to as "him") and the second was "split" into male and female (referred to as "them"). God also named the split version "man" as well which is why we don't see this. On the outside all look the same and are named "man". Ponder Matthew 13 in the parable of the wheat and the tares. Our outer man is the "tares" who is male or female. Our inner man is Jesus the son of God, the wheat, the original (but hidden) spiritual man. Jesus, the one true spiritual son of God is both the first and the last Adam. He was/is the spiritual template/master of all people alive regardless of their beliefs. Christ is all and in all. Col 3:11 We will all be revealed this one day according to the fathers perfect will and timing. 1 Tim 2:6, 1 Cor 15:22-23. This is the TRULY good news.

I wrote more on my blog as I keep hearing more and more on Genesis when studying the original language and not man's translation or interpretation. Please look into these things as they are very good!

Genesis on Kickedoutofchurch.com

God bless,
Duane


Hi @we-live-now ,

Sorry I did not see that you posted here till just now. In regards to your thoughts on the Son needing to be immortal and almighty by means of his begottenness. It is an interesting concept, and yet the rest of scripture does not support it. Jesus did die, and if he was immortal before his resurrection that would have been impossible. Spirit bodies do not quickly break down as material ones do. But they can be put to death, otherwise Satan could not be put out of existence in the future. This makes angels mortal. I think people get a unscriptural idea of what immortal means from Greek, Roman and Norse gods in our mythologies. These 'immortals' could die.

And yet if you look at the word used in the Greek for immortal, it literally means deathlessness. That is the inability to be put to death. And just because someone is mortal does not mean they can not live forever. All it means is that they need to rely on the support of someone else to do so.

Jehovah granting Jesus and his brothers immorality upon being resurrected as spirit beings is a huge trust being granted to them. Jehovah in effect is saying "You are now indestructible. I can no longer kill you. I know it will never become necessary."
-----------------------------------------
There is a problem with the interpretation of the wheat and the weeds as you are repeating here. Let's reread together Jesus' explanation of Mt 13:24-30.

"The sower of the fine seed is the Son of man; the field is the world. As for the fine seed these are the sons of the Kingdom, but the weeds are the sons of the wicked one, and the enemy who sowed them is the Devil. The harvest is a conclusion of a system of things, (or "an age.") and the reapers are angels. Therefore, just as the weeds are collected and burned with fire, so it will be in the conclusion of the system of things. The Son of man will send his angels, and they will collect from his Kingdom all things that cause stumbling and people who practice lawlessness, and they will pitch them into the fiery furnace. There is the where their weeping and the gnashing of their teeth will be. At that time the righteous ones will shine as brightly as the sun in the Kingdom of their Father. Let the one who has ears listen." - Mt 13:37b-43

Notice that this illustration was talking about 2 sowers and two classes of people? It was not one class of people with a physical and a spiritual side. The sons of the kingdom, those who inherit a heavenly reward were to be oversown with imitation Christians. They would intermingle till the conclusion of the system of things and then be separated. One class (true sons) separated for a blessing of being able to shine as brightly as the sun in the Kingdom when they receive their heavenly reward. The other class that would be proving by their lawlessness that they were imitation sons. These would would receive an adverse judgement.
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
1) We-live-now said “ I really like how the Jehovah's dig deeper into scripture than any other group I have encountered. “ post # 105

Duane, I very much agree with you that the Jehovah’s Witnesses are wonderful at using texts to create a well-organized system of belief. I have often wanted to attend one of their meetings to see their methods of biblical study.


2) We-live-now said “ If he were created (Strong's 6213), he would perish and die. He is God's SON and he was (spiritually) birthed or bara' (Strong's 1254) and not "created" or formed like created things that die or asah (Strong's 6213). “

I think it is good to learn to look at the earlier versions of biblical texts and in their earlier languages. However, in the early stages of learning the language, all of us will make certain mistakes in interpretation and in accurately ascribing meanings. I think this is what you are doing in creating this theory of yours. For example, בָּרָא is not the common term to refer to a birth, but is most often used for “created” things often in a similar manner to עָשָׂה. Thus, your base distinction between the two terms is incorrect. For example, genesis 1:1 uses בָּרָא in referring to the “creation” of the uninhabited earth itself (that is, the earth is not “born”, but “created”…).

There are other terms that are more closely related to actually “fathering” a child (if that is the distinction you are wanting to make…). For example a form of יָלַד is used to describe the “begetting” of the 12 princes in Genesis 17:20. The Sar Shalom Hebrew New Testament uses a form of this verb in forming the phrase “the birth of Jesus/yeshua” : “ הֻלֶּדֶת יֵשׁוּעַ“.

My point is simply that you are misapplying these historical terms in creating your Theory and, I have to agree with Kolibri, that there are problems with this specific theory because of this misuse of terms and their ancient meanings.

As another example, when you conclude that : “… in Gen 1:27 God "births" two types of offspring. One is already named man when he was born/birthed but is referred to as "him" at first. “, remember that הָֽאָדָם֙ is an articled word meaning “the human” (not a name "Adam") and it is only later that the term becomes also used as a name “Adam / אָדָם֙” (without any need for the article). It is a bit confusing since English translations do not often make the distinction between "adam" as a "name" and "ha-adam" as "the human".

At any rate, I will probably work on getting to a Jehovahs Witness meeting to see what it is like and you can work on improving the language and theory. Good luck and keep going on your study. I will be interested to see what sort of language skills and theories you develop over time.

Good luck and good journey Duane.

Clear
ειακφιδρω
 
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