I will beg to differ on that point. The rendering of the KJV in that verse makes God out to be capricious....capable of evil or wickedness.
According to Strongs....the word "evil" in that verse ....
The KJV translates Strong's H7451 in the following manner: evil (442x), wickedness (59x), wicked (25x), mischief (21x), hurt (20x), bad (13x), trouble (10x), sore (9x), affliction (6x), ill (5x), adversity (4x), favoured (3x), harm (3x), naught (3x), noisome (2x), grievous (2x), sad (2x), miscellaneous (34x).
Why does the KJV translate the same word in so many different ways?
God does not cause evil because there is no evil in him. He can cause "affliction" "trouble" or "adversity" for his enemies but that is retribution, not "evil". In the first part of that verse is the contrast between light and darkness....the second part is not a contrast at all. "Evil" is not the opposite of "peace", but "calamity" or "adversity" are. Do you see the difference?
There are many other examples where the KJV has not rendered a verse as it should be rendered.
It is not a translation I favor because of its outdated language and failure in its renderings to convey the truth of God's word. The main purpose of a translation is to accurately convey the thoughts of another language into one you understand perfectly. I don't find that the KJV does that.