known him? you know what I mean. he was so unknown not a scribe scribbled a word down about him while alive.
there were many different teacher/healers in his time. a over abundance of said individuals.
The vast majority of people were peasants. The scribes and such really did not take a huge notice of those peasants. Even religious leaders who had large movements were not written about. Looking through Josephus, there were a number of religious leaders like Jesus who seemingly had large followings, but were not written about until the time of Josephus (or we simply are missing earlier sources).
Just because no scribe wrote about him really doesn't suggest he had a small following, or that only a few people knew about him. It just means scribes really just didn't care about one more religious leader when there was an abundance of such individuals.
excellent questions and the answer has multiple points of interest.
missing body, possibly by disciples to further the movement
BUT above all.......jesus movement made religion and health care free for the poor peasants in and around Galilee and all those who took in this message during his travels.
remember, the religion was corrupt with a roman infection in the temple, it was costly to worship under roman control of the bank/temple. And those in rural areas were also in extreme poverty and had no money. Free went a long way when you could invite religion in to your dinner table. the movement didnt charge for their work or healing, but the poor desperate disciples loved your food.
no other leaders remembered? we dont know the first thing about the true movement. the only thing that made this movement work was it was stolen by gentiles. Had it remained a sect of judaism, it would never have flourished and would be long dead now like many other sects of the time.
We have no reason to think that they stole the body though. It would not really have furthered the movement, as there was no idea that the messiah was supposed to rise from the dead. Not to mention, it would have been easy for everyone to just say that they stole the body. Stealing the body simply would not have been an effective manner in furthering the movement. Especially when the central idea of the movement did not rest on a missing body. Look at Paul, he doesn't mention the empty tomb.
As for free health care. Jesus wasn't the only one. With the death of Jesus, it would have been just as easy to follow another faith healer from that time. There were many of them. More so, as you have stated, he didn't have a massive amounts of followers anyway. Really though, Jesus was nothing unique. They could have found any number of faith healers at that time.
As for the religion being corrupt, not really. Maybe certain sects, such as the Sadducees. However, the vast majority of Jews were not associated with the main sects of Judaism (the Sadducees, Pharisees, Essenes). Not to mention, most didn't think that the Essenes were corrupt, or even the Pharisees. It was the Temple institute that was believed to have been corrupt. Meaning, there were many options for the Jews at that time. Jesus wasn't needed.
And again, there is no sign that the movement was stolen by Gentiles. It was freely brought to the Gentiles. More so, the fact that it survived after the Temple's destruction would suggest that it in fact did take off, and would have survived anyway.
You cant say this because we dont know enough from the original movement ir its popularity. we only know the gentile version that survived on cross cultural oral tradition. NOT that im sure about this or follow this to the T BUT For all we know he could have started a riot in the temple to try and start a riot to incite a massive uprising against a roman infected temple, later edited out building the roman mythical jesus we know today.
Then you can't say that Jesus was a martyr and that was why the movement spread.
Both Acts and Paul.
they dont exist, this was a sect of a pure free form of judaism for hard working poor peasant jews that jesus took his teachings based on John to.
Paul took the oral tradition, and took his gentile version to the road.
Paul was a Jew. He died a Jew. All that he did was open up this sect to the entire world. He based such a movement on the OT, which stated that was what was going to happen. More so, if you read Paul or Acts, they both state that this Gentile movement was officially sanctioned by the Jerusalem Church. It was a purposeful thing. In fact, Acts suggests that Peter had first went to the Gentiles.
Paul was still small fish anyway. There were many various missionaries to the Gentiles. Paul even mentions some in anger. The difference with Paul is that he was literate, and only after his death, was seen as quite important to the movement. That could be that by that time, the movement had went more gentile simply because they were kicked out of Judaism (and they were kicked out only because Rabbinical Judaism was centralizing itself in order to remain strong after such a devastating blow; the Temple destruction).
On a side note, many Gentiles were already following Judaism anyway. They were not Jews, but were considered "God-fearers." They didn't convert, but still practiced Judaism to a point.
False
Matthew copied GMark which has a roman/gentile foundation and built on that, writing to a more jewish audience, which at that time its leadership and methodology was being rebuilt. [in turmoil]
So we have a roman/gentile foundation there as well.
Actually it is true that the author of Matthew is thought to have come from Palestine. According to Wikipedia:
Gospel of Matthew - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia (note: I don't care for Wiki as you know, but since you accept it, I figure it is a good enough source for the present situation).
Yes, Matthew borrowed from Mark. However, that doesn't mean that Matthew was based on a Roman/Gentile foundation. There is no evidence that the author of Mark was a Roman citizen. He was probably Roman in only the sense that he lived in the Roman Empire (in that regards, Jesus was a Roman). As for being a Gentile, that is not necessary either. He seems to be familiar with Aramaic, as well as various Jewish ideas, which he has to explain for his audience. Most scholars agree that he wrote in Syria, not Rome. Now, he may have written for a Gentile population (or a mostly Gentile population), but that does not mean he was a Gentile Roman.
Mark is said to have been based on older sources as well. Those sources are most likely Jewish, simply because the farther we go back, the more Jewish the ideas are.
Also, Mark is just one source for Matthew. Matthew also used other sources as well. So there is more foundation there then you are implying.
Fighting mythers daily in another forum who are as educated as mythers get including Doherty gives me the right to make said statements, and is not dismissal.
It is a dismissal. And it doesn't give you a right. That is a different forum. It does not mean anything here. You insulting your opponent, and leaving it at that, is a dismissal.