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"The god of this age"

InvestigateTruth

Well-Known Member
Who is the "The god of this age" in the following passage of Bible:

"The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God." 2 cor. 4:4

I know that it is generally interpreted as satan. But my question is how do you know it is meant satan, and not God? If scriptures want to say "satan" it would say satan. Why using the word "God" here? Please make your point based on scriptures and logical arguments.
 
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Breathe

Hostis humani generis
But my question is how do you know it is meant satan, and not God? If scriptures want to say "satan" it would say satan.
Why would it? Why not use poetic terminology?

Why using the word "God" here?
To show that this force is the ruler of this world, and its influence is so vast is like it is like a divinity.

In my opinion, it fits in with the idea "one cannot serve both God and money": one can either be a servant of the Divine, or a servant of the 'god of this world'; something I interpret not to be an actual entity who can oppose God (simply because I don't believe in such a thing), but it is simply materialism, selfishness, greed, etc; that is, the god of this world is our own egos.
 

InvestigateTruth

Well-Known Member
Why would it? Why not use poetic terminology?


To show that this force is the ruler of this world, and its influence is so vast is like it is like a divinity.

In my opinion, it fits in with the idea "one cannot serve both God and money": one can either be a servant of the Divine, or a servant of the 'god of this world'; something I interpret not to be an actual entity who can oppose God (simply because I don't believe in such a thing), but it is simply materialism, selfishness, greed, etc; that is, the god of this world is our own egos.

Well, It seems to me, reading it within the context and from begining of cor. 4:1, it is talking about "God", and what He does.

So, you are suggesting that can be poetry. It is possible, but why not interprete it as God, in order to punish the unbelievers, has made them blind, so they may not recognize truth.
God according to Bible, punishes. The story of the Flood, that came to people of Noah and killed them, is an indication that God does punish accroding to Bible Authors. So, now, in this passage also, those Authors could have meant that, Since the unbelievers has done wrong to others, and have gone after Worldly desires, they do not deserve to see the Truth, thus God has made them blind. Why cannot be interpreted this way, just as the verse saying.
 

Breathe

Hostis humani generis
So, you are suggesting that can be poetry. It is possible, but why not interprete it as God, in order to punish the unbelievers, has made them blind, so they may not recognize truth.
I don't think it fits in with "God so loved the world..." that way.

So, now, in this passage also, those Authors could have meant that, Since the unbelievers has done wrong to others, and have gone after Worldly desires, they do not deserve to see the Truth, thus God has made them blind. Why cannot be interpreted this way, just as the verse saying.
Could be. There is no way to know for sure.
 

M_Wm_Ferguson_MTh

Retired churchman.
Who is the "The god of this age" in ... 2 cor. 4:4

I know that it is generally interpreted as satan.....
Satan, as you seem to be interpreting that word (i.e., a red-suited, half man-half goat figure with cloven hooves, bifurcated tail, and pitchfork) is an invention of the Renaissance-era Catholic Church. The creation of that caricature, approved for dissemination throughout the (then) Church of the World by Pope Gregory "the Great"(?), was intended to compel the masses of European working men and farmers (and particularly young boys who would eventually become such men) into mandatory attendance at Mass and compel them to open their purse strings and surrender its contents to the church, which had a cathedral to build in Rome, and the lavish lifestyles of its leaders to support.

However:
Satan is called god in the rabbinical writings. “The first God is the true God; but the second god is Samael.” (Vines Word Studies entry at 2 Cor. 4:4)
Samael is the "chief of Satans" ..., quite in the sense of "the prince of the devils" mentioned in Matt. ix. 34; but, on the other hand, he is "the great prince in heaven." ..., who rules over angels and powers ..... As the incarnation of evil he is the celestial patron of the sinful empire of Rome,.... He flies through the air like a bird ..., and, while the ḥayyot and ofannim have only six wings, he has twelve, and commands a whole army of demons .... In so far as he is identified with the serpent ..., all legends associated with Satan refer equally to him,.... (Jewish Encyclopedia 1906 @ SAMAEL - JewishEncyclopedia.com)
Jesus uses the same idea in John 12:31; John 14:30, and Paul in Eph. 2:2; 6:12, and John in 1 John 5:19. (Robertson, Word Pictures in the New Testament entry at 2 Cor. 4:4)
Looking more closely at 2 Cor. 4:4 KJV, the English term "the God" is translated from the Greek term ὁ θεὸς. Interestingly, this term (because of the appearance of the Greek definite article ὁ) usually refers to the supreme Divinity within both Judaism (YHVH) and Christianity (Jehovah). This is the same term used in John 1:1-2 to refer to "God".

Here in 2 Cor. 4:4, however,
ὁ θεὸς precedes the Greek possessive noun αιωνος and is better translated as age (see 1 Cor. 1:20) which can, in Judaism, refer to a present or future Messianic age. Hence, a better reading of Paul's words (presuming that he was speaking from his training and experiences as a Jewish Pharisee) might be: because the supreme deity of this current Messianic period has . . . . .
 
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InvestigateTruth

Well-Known Member
Satan, as you seem to be interpreting that word (i.e., a red-suited, half man-half goat figure with cloven hooves, bifurcated tail, and pitchfork) is an invention of the Renaissance-era Catholic Church. The creation of that caricature, approved for dissemination throughout the (then) Church of the World by Pope Gregory "the Great"(?), was intended to compel the masses of European working men and farmers (and particularly young boys who would eventually become such men) into mandatory attendance at Mass and compel them to open their purse strings and surrender its contents to the church, which had a cathedral to build in Rome, and the lavish lifestyles of its leaders to support.

However:Looking more closely at 2 Cor. 4:4 KJV, the English term "the God" is translated from the Greek term ὁ θεὸς. Interestingly, this term (because of the appearance of the Greek definite article ὁ) usually refers to the supreme Divinity within both Judaism (YHVH) and Christianity (Jehovah). This is the same term used in John 1:1-2 to refer to "God".

Here in 2 Cor. 4:4, however, ὁ θεὸς precedes the Greek possessive noun αιωνος and is better translated as age (see 1 Cor. 1:20) which can, in Judaism, refer to a present or future Messianic age. Hence, a better reading of Paul's words (presuming that he was speaking from his training and experiences as a Jewish Pharisee) might be: because the supreme deity of this current Messianic period has . . . . .

Thanks, good points.
 

jtartar

Well-Known Member
Who is the "The god of this age" in the following passage of Bible:

"The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God." 2 cor. 4:4

I know that it is generally interpreted as satan. But my question is how do you know it is meant satan, and not God? If scriptures want to say "satan" it would say satan. Why using the word "God" here? Please make your point based on scriptures and logical arguments.

Investigate Truth,
Jesus told all his disciples that God sent him to teach the Kingdom message, John 17:3. Consider also what Jesus told Pontius Pilate, at John 18:36,37. At John 7:16 Jesus said that what he taught ws not his but belonged to the one who sent him. So why would the one who sent Jesus blind the minds of the unbelieving. God sent Jesus so that everyone who believed in him would gain everlasting life, John 3:16.
Lets address this god of this world, John 12:31, 14:30, 16:11, all speak of the god , or some say prince of the world. Consider also what is written at 1John 5:19, where the scripture tells us that the whole world is lying in the power of the wicked one. 1John 3:8 tells us that Jesus came to destroy the works of the Devil. God would surely not blind anyone of the messagre that He sent Jesus to deliver.
This one scripture is a proof scripture, Rev 12:9, which identifies Satan, the Devil, and the Dragon, they are all Satan who has deceve the whole world.
There is an interesting term, called Pansatanism, which means that the conditions of tis world is the manifestation of the personality of the ruler of the world.
The horrible things going on in the world are positively not the personality of the Only True God, whose name is Jehovah. He has promised a paradise for all who love Him and have faith in the Ranson Sacrifice of His son, Jesus, 1John 3:23. 1Tim 2:4-6,says that God wants all men to be saved. God therefore, would not blind anyone to the truth, which means their life, John 4:23,24.
 

chinu

chinu
Who is the "The god of this age" in the following passage of Bible:

"The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God." 2 cor. 4:4

I know that it is generally interpreted as satan. But my question is how do you know it is meant satan, and not God? If scriptures want to say "satan" it would say satan. Why using the word "God" here? Please make your point based on scriptures and logical arguments.
That because, jesus was capable to make difference between satan and god, But, as we people cannot make difference between satan and god, Thus.. Satan is equal to God for we people.

That's why jesus used the term "The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers" :)
 

InvestigateTruth

Well-Known Member
Investigate Truth,
Jesus told all his disciples that God sent him to teach the Kingdom message, John 17:3. Consider also what Jesus told Pontius Pilate, at John 18:36,37. At John 7:16 Jesus said that what he taught ws not his but belonged to the one who sent him. So why would the one who sent Jesus blind the minds of the unbelieving. God sent Jesus so that everyone who believed in him would gain everlasting life, John 3:16.
Lets address this god of this world, John 12:31, 14:30, 16:11, all speak of the god , or some say prince of the world. Consider also what is written at 1John 5:19, where the scripture tells us that the whole world is lying in the power of the wicked one. 1John 3:8 tells us that Jesus came to destroy the works of the Devil. God would surely not blind anyone of the messagre that He sent Jesus to deliver.
This one scripture is a proof scripture, Rev 12:9, which identifies Satan, the Devil, and the Dragon, they are all Satan who has deceve the whole world.
There is an interesting term, called Pansatanism, which means that the conditions of tis world is the manifestation of the personality of the ruler of the world.
The horrible things going on in the world are positively not the personality of the Only True God, whose name is Jehovah. He has promised a paradise for all who love Him and have faith in the Ranson Sacrifice of His son, Jesus, 1John 3:23. 1Tim 2:4-6,says that God wants all men to be saved. God therefore, would not blind anyone to the truth, which means their life, John 4:23,24.

jtartar, Jesus Himself talked in Parables so Unbelievers do not understand. See Mat. 13:10
Please also see my post #3.
 
Who is the "The god of this age" in the following passage of Bible:

"The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God." 2 cor. 4:4

I know that it is generally interpreted as satan. But my question is how do you know it is meant satan, and not God? If scriptures want to say "satan" it would say satan. Why using the word "God" here? Please make your point based on scriptures and logical arguments.
First: use the words: 'I suspect', instead of 'I know', because we hardly 'know' anything.
Second: to me it means exactly what it says, we can not see the gospel because we are blind. We are the 'unbelievers', not some mysterious poor souls somewhere else.
We don't read the bible as the book of 'LAW', we stupidly believe that this story happened in real time, as if we are watching a Hollywood film believing it to be real.
Third: the bible was written for a spcific group of people who learn the meanings of the words used from a very young age (special education, no school) and then manipulate us to believe fairy stories.
God=mind, in this context-the Emperor's wish.
The Emperor does not want us, the subjects, to see and partake from the Emperor's 'Tree of life', ie, enjoy our own fruit of labour instead of giving it away.
How do they blind us?
Very simple, through confounding our language and our minds.
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
Who is the "The god of this age" in the following passage of Bible:

"The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God." 2 cor. 4:4

I know that it is generally interpreted as satan. But my question is how do you know it is meant satan, and not God? If scriptures want to say "satan" it would say satan. Why using the word "God" here? Please make your point based on scriptures and logical arguments.

because Satan is called the god of this world in many other scriptures:
“The whole world is lying in the power of the wicked one,” 1 John 5:19.

It was the devil who offered Jesus all the authority and the glory of “ the kingdoms of the inhabited earth.” (Luke 4:5-7) He must have control of them, otherwise it would not have been a real temptation if he had not power to give them to someone else.

And this explains why Jesus told his followers that they must "be no part of the world"

The world belongs to Satan....for now.
 

Union jack

Member
3 But if our gospel be hid, it is hid to them that are lost:
4 In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them

The colon preceding verse 4 might make a difference to the interpretation if indeed we are in the company of 'The Lost'.
 

CG Didymus

Veteran Member
Who is the "The god of this age" in the following passage of Bible:

"The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God." 2 cor. 4:4

I know that it is generally interpreted as satan. But my question is how do you know it is meant satan, and not God? If scriptures want to say "satan" it would say satan. Why using the word "God" here? Please make your point based on scriptures and logical arguments.
I have an old NASB that has references. It sent me to Jn 12:31 "Now judgement is upon this world; now the ruler of this world shall be cast out." Then referred to Jn 14:30 "I will not speak much more width you, for the ruler of the world is coming, and he has nothing in Me;" Then Jn 16: "...and concerning judgement, because the ruler of this world has been judged." Then Eph 2:1-2 "And you were dead in your trespasses and sins, in which you formerly walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, of the spirit that is now working in the sons of disobedience." Eph 6:12 "For our struggle is not against flesh and blood, but against the rulers, against the powers, against the world forces of this darkness, against the spiritual forces of wickedness in the heavenly places." Then to 1 Jn 4:4 "You are from God, little children, and have overcome them; because greater is He who is in you than he who is in the world." And finally 1 Jn 5:19 "We know that we are of God, and the whole world lies in the power of the evil one."

What do you think is going on here, since the devil/Satan is not part of the Baha'i beliefs.
The Bahá'í Faith denies the existence of Satan, a devil, or an "evil force." Evil does not have independence existence, but is rather the absence of good, just as darkness is the absence of light and cold is the absence of heat. Just as the sun is the unique source of all life in a solar system, so ultimately is there only one force or power in the universe, the force we call God.
For the Christian, I don't see why they would think anything else but Satan/the devil as the one being alluded to.
 

rusra02

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Who is the "The god of this age" in the following passage of Bible:

"The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God." 2 cor. 4:4

I know that it is generally interpreted as satan. But my question is how do you know it is meant satan, and not God? If scriptures want to say "satan" it would say satan. Why using the word "God" here? Please make your point based on scriptures and logical arguments.
1 John 5:19 states that the whole world is lying in the power of the wicked one.
Revelation 12:9 states that Satan is misleading the entire inhabited earth. Clearly, he is the one blinding people's minds, not the true God, who as 2 Corinthians 4:6 says "has shown on our hearts to illuminate them."
 

InvestigateTruth

Well-Known Member
1 John 5:19 states that the whole world is lying in the power of the wicked one.
Revelation 12:9 states that Satan is misleading the entire inhabited earth. Clearly, he is the one blinding people's minds, not the true God, who as 2 Corinthians 4:6 says "has shown on our hearts to illuminate them."

No rusra02, I don't think so. This is it:

"Jesus said, "I came into this world for judgment, that those who don't see may see; and that those who see may become blind." John 9:39
 
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InvestigateTruth

Well-Known Member
because Satan is called the god of this world in many other scriptures:
“The whole world is lying in the power of the wicked one,” 1 John 5:19.

It was the devil who offered Jesus all the authority and the glory of “ the kingdoms of the inhabited earth.” (Luke 4:5-7) He must have control of them, otherwise it would not have been a real temptation if he had not power to give them to someone else.

And this explains why Jesus told his followers that they must "be no part of the world"

The world belongs to Satan....for now.

This is the clear verse:

"Jesus said, "I came into this world for judgment, that those who don't see may see; and that those who see may become blind."" John 9:39
 

The Sum of Awe

Brought to you by the moment that spacetime began.
Who is the "The god of this age" in the following passage of Bible:

"The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God." 2 cor. 4:4

I know that it is generally interpreted as satan. But my question is how do you know it is meant satan, and not God? If scriptures want to say "satan" it would say satan. Why using the word "God" here? Please make your point based on scriptures and logical arguments.

Because saying things flat out like "Satan" can be very misleading - ranging from thoughts of this:
devil.jpg


to, well... this:
gholami20110415052532750.jpg




Saying "The God of this age" is limited to what it says, it IS a definition in itself, and not entirely lacking a strict definition like "Satan"
 

InvestigateTruth

Well-Known Member
The horrible things going on in the world are positively not the personality of the Only True God, whose name is Jehovah. ...

Yes, this is true, however, God is both punishing and rewarding.
The verse that talks about, "the God of this Age has blinded the minds of unbelievers" has done this as a punishment.
This is confirmed by the following verse:

"Jesus said, "I came into this world for judgment, that those who don't see may see; and that those who see may become blind."" John 9:39
 

jtartar

Well-Known Member
Who is the "The god of this age" in the following passage of Bible:

"The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God." 2 cor. 4:4

I know that it is generally interpreted as satan. But my question is how do you know it is meant satan, and not God? If scriptures want to say "satan" it would say satan. Why using the word "God" here? Please make your point based on scriptures and logical arguments.

Investigate Truth,
A modicum of logic first: If the God spoken of at 2Cor 4:4 were the True God, or even Jesus, why would either of them blind the minds of anyone? Remember, Jesus came to earth to teach and to give his life for all who believe on him.
A couple of other places where the Bible speaks of the ruler of the world, which also certainly mean Satan, but do not mention him by name, are John 12:31, 16:11.
To show who it is that is ruling this system of things, notice what John says, at 1John 5:19.
I believe that the real proof text has to be Rev 12:9, which gives several names for Satan, Great Dragon, Original Serpent, Devil, the one who is misleading the entire world.
At Rev 13:2,4, the Dragon is mentioned, and here he is not called Satan, but we know exactly who he is there, just as we know who is meant at 2Cor 4:4.
 
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