• Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:
    • Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
    • Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
    • Access to private conversations with other members.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!

The father calls Jesus God, and infers that Jesus is the creator

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
In the Book of Hebrews, we encounter this interesting inference
Hebrews 1:8, Here, the father seems to call Jesus G-d
Hebrews 1:10 , here, the father clearly states that Jesus created, is basically 'the creator', for all intents and purposes.

If you don't believe this, and claim to be a Christian, how do you explain away these verses, and maintain, that they are false?

Thanks
 
Last edited:

Unveiled Artist

Veteran Member
In the Book of Hebrews, we encounter this interesting inference
Hebrews 1:8, Here, the father seems to call Jesus G-d
Hebrews 1:10 , here, the father clearly states that Jesus created, is basically 'the creator', for all intents and purposes.

It's great if you don't believe this, however, if you claim to be a Christian, how do you explain away these verses, and maintain, that they are false?

Thanks

I honestly feel that some Christians cannot see Jesus as anyone other than God because to do so would be associating themselves with someone lower than god himself. Fortunately, that is not what god intended. Why do some Christians don't see that? ....

Hebrews 1:1-14

1. Long ago, at many times and in many ways, God spoke to our fathers by the prophets,

2
in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir (Can god appoint himself as the heir? ) of all things, through whom also he created the world.

  • He spoke to his son not to himself
  • He appointed an heir (someone else) not himself. Usually, someone of higher rank appoints someone else to be an heir-usually family members
  • "Through whom" is a key word. It is grammatically incorrect to say god appointed himself through whom (himself) also created the world. Through usually means from one person through an intermediary ("no one comes to the Father except through me) to whomever is on the 'other side'-children of god)
3 the exact imprint of his nature, and he upholds the universe by the word of his power. After making purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high, 4 he has inherited is more excellent than theirs.

After god the Father making is heir his representative, he gives his son (not himself-that would be odd) the same nature as himself. So father and son share the sane nature as I share the same blood as my parents. The son sits at the right hand of the Majesty... if Jesus the Son is god then he cannot sit beside himself and he would be the only one siting on the thrown to be called "Majesty." Instead, His Father inherited everything he (god) has to his son. This does not make his son god, they just share natures. If the son is god, then you have god-father and god-son. That's polytheism.​

5 “You are my Son, “I will be to him a father, the firstborn into the world, he says,

“Let all God's angels worship him.”

Since Christ is god's son and the heir with the same nature as the father, the father gives permission for the angels (and I assume Christians) to worship him because through him/jesus that is the only way a Christian gets to the father-John 3:16 again. All goes back to that key verse.​

7 "He makes his angels winds, Your throne, O God, is forever and ever, has anointed you the oil of gladness beyond your companions.”

Who has he appointed? Jesus. He has the same nature and inheritance as god. They share in inheritance. Hence the reference. That doesn't make Jesus god. He just shares in god's glory.​

10 “You, Lord, laid the foundation of the earth in the beginning, the same, Sit at my right hand until I make your enemies a footstool for your feet” You sent out to serve for the sake of those who are to inherit salvation.

Since Jesus is god's son and share's in his (god's) inheritance as god has given him, he is now the only person who can be called Lord. He shares in the inheritance that has been laid down by god the father as a foundation of the earth in the beginning-when god (not Jesus) said "let there be light."

You (god is speaking to Jesus or the angels are, one of the two), Jesus, sent out (by his father) to serve for the sake of those who are to inherit salvation (Christians).​

Two separate people.
One nature.
Does not make them each other.

:leafwind:

Now if you want to play grammatical jumping jacks (no pun), you can say that:

1. The word god (lower g) is an adjective that means describes someone of higher authority or object of reverence. Something or someone sacred and put at higher value because of its attributes than the person who worships it/that person. god (lower g) would be all-knowing, all-powerful, love, mercy.

Adjectives are not persons (places or things); not a noun. So God (capitol G) the Father and the son share the same attributes and those attributes are defined in one word...

that one word is god. Hence god-the son and god-the father.

2. Or you can say God (proper noun) is a person (excluding place or thing at the moment). As a person in a Christian view, he is god (has the attributes mentioned above) but as a person he is a creator. God (proper noun) is used in a lot of religions. In Christianity it means creator, nothing more. Creator is not an adjective. It is like saying "human being" and Carlita (pretending God is his real name) is saying "God".

In the scripture above, Jesus and God (proper noun) have the same nature. That same nature is "god".

If Jesus was god, there is no trinity. Since there is a trinity, there would be three gods. That is polytheism. Since Christianity is not a polytheistic religion we can only say that Jesus

is the visible image of the Father (Colossians 1:15). If he were god, it he wouldnt' be an image of himself. It would just say "God (proper noun) is human."

I don't know any Christian who considers God human. Since they don't, I assume they are explaining their position incorrectly. Maybe it's hard to explain the nature of Christ since Christ has the attributes of God the Father.

Then again, sometimes it gets confusing because they mistake god's attributes as God himself. That's the problem.​

Can you explain the difference between Jesus and God? Once you find one difference he is no longer God (proper noun) he has a separate person. If you say they are the same, then I'd have to assume Jesus was never incarnate and never human. Though the Bible doesn't say that.

I hope that someone explains this to me either that or explain how this isn't logical at least.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
In the Book of Hebrews, we encounter this interesting inference
Hebrews 1:8, Here, the father seems to call Jesus G-d
Hebrews 1:10 , here, the father clearly states that Jesus created, is basically 'the creator', for all intents and purposes.
If you don't believe this, and claim to be a Christian, how do you explain away these verses, and maintain, that they are false?
Thanks

Yes, God says to Jesus - Hebrews 1:8 - about the Son 'Thy' God is your throne forever. Please notice Psalms 45:6-7
What does Hebrews 1:4 say about Jesus ? Could that description fit God ?

Yes, in the beginning ( Not before the beginning ) God laid the foundations.... - Hebrews 1:10
So, only God was before the beginning - Psalms 90:2
Then, Jesus was Not before the beginning as God was before the beginning.- Colossians 1:15; Revelation 1:5; Revelation 3:14 B
Doesn't the heavenly Jesus still have a God over him - Revelation 3:12 ?______
How many thrones are mentioned at Revelation 3:21 ? ______
 

rusra02

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
In the Book of Hebrews, we encounter this interesting inference
Hebrews 1:8, Here, the father seems to call Jesus G-d
Hebrews 1:10 , here, the father clearly states that Jesus created, is basically 'the creator', for all intents and purposes.

If you don't believe this, and claim to be a Christian, how do you explain away these verses, and maintain, that they are false?

Thanks
Hebrews 1:8,9: "But about the Son, he says: “God is your throne forever and ever, and the scepter of your Kingdom is the scepter of uprightness. You loved righteousness, and you hated lawlessness. That is why God, your God, anointed you with the oil of exultation more than your companions.”
I do not think verse 8 says Jesus is God. Rather, it says that God is your throne (I understand this to mean God gave Jesus his authority. Verse 9 says "God, your God, anointed you." This indicates to me that Jesus is subject to God, not God himself, since God (Jesus God) anointed him.

"Why does Hebrews 1:10-12 quote Psalm 102:25-27 and apply it to the Son, when the psalm says that it is addressed to God? Because the Son is the one through whom God performed the creative works there described by the psalmist. (See Colossians 1:15, 16; Proverbs 8:22, 27-30.) It should be observed in Hebrews 1:5b that a quotation is made from 2 Samuel 7:14 and applied to the Son of God. Although that text had its first application to Solomon, the later application of it to Jesus Christ does not mean that Solomon and Jesus are the same. Jesus is “greater than Solomon” and carries out a work foreshadowed by Solomon.—Luke 11:31." (Reasoning on the Scriptures, p.414)
 
Top