• Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:
    • Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
    • Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
    • Access to private conversations with other members.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!

Slavery in the bible

sooda

Veteran Member
No. The fact that the laws about beatings exist do not tell us that beatings exist.

It's circular logic.

We know that Slaves existed and were owned because people wrote about HOW they lived, and who owned them.

What we don't have "so far" are any accounts of these beatings that you continually refer to.

Here's a quote from wikipedia:

"Scholars are unsure to what extent the laws encouraging humane treatment were followed. In the 19th century, Jewish scholars such as Moses Mielziner and Samuel Krauss studied slave-ownership by ancient Jews, and generally concluded that Jewish slaves were treated as merely temporary bondsman, and that Jewish owners treated slaves with special compassion.[79] However, 20th century scholars such as Solomon Zeitlin and Ephraim Urbach, examined Jewish slave-ownership practices more critically, and their historical accounts generally conclude that Jews did own slaves at least through the Maccabbean period, and that it was probably more ubiquitous and humane than earlier scholars had maintained."

Jewish views on slavery - Wikipedia

This is actual evidence of how slaves were treated. Even the critics listed above claim humane treatment. Your statement is just circular logic and presumption of guilt.

There were also NON Jewish slaves.

Any plantation journal and there were many of them details punishment of slaves.
 

dybmh

דניאל יוסף בן מאיר הירש
There were also NON Jewish slaves.
Yes, this distinction is addressed repeatedly in this thread.
Any plantation journal and there were many of them details punishment of slaves.
Again, I am NOT Talking about PreCivil war Slavery in America. That slavery was due to the United States Constitution and American Laws.
 

sooda

Veteran Member
Yes, this distinction is addressed repeatedly in this thread.

Again, I am NOT Talking about PreCivil war Slavery in America. That slavery was due to the United States Constitution and American Laws.

Slavery in America was long before American Independence.
 

dybmh

דניאל יוסף בן מאיר הירש
@sooda ,

"In response to the The Nation of Islam's claim that Jewish Slave owners and merchants dominated the slave trade, historians have examined the relevant source material in order to determine to what extent Jews actually participated in and profited from the enslavement of Africans and their transfer to the United States. They have shown that the claim of a large Jewish participation or even domination is not only exaggerated but entirely wrong." (source)

Sources:

"Jewish Slaves in Antiquity" by Professor Catherine Hezser, Oxford University Press, Pages 2-3
"Jews, Slaves, and the Slave Trade: Setting the Record Straight" by Eil Faber, NYU Press, Pages 143-146
"The Role of Jews in Atlantic Slave Trade" by Seymour Drescher, Journal of Immigrants and Minorities Volume 12 Issue 2, Pages 113-125
 

SkepticThinker

Veteran Member
Never said they didn't.



It does. All people means everyone. ;)



Except for what Jesus says in the Bible right? :p



You were.



You're the one that brought it up.



That's why I pointed out the difference between punishing and hitting.



:star: Nuance :star:



Stop waiting go back and read then.



Prove it!:p
Good grief, it is impossible to get anywhere with you. o_O
 
Top