sooda
Veteran Member
No. The fact that the laws about beatings exist do not tell us that beatings exist.
It's circular logic.
We know that Slaves existed and were owned because people wrote about HOW they lived, and who owned them.
What we don't have "so far" are any accounts of these beatings that you continually refer to.
Here's a quote from wikipedia:
"Scholars are unsure to what extent the laws encouraging humane treatment were followed. In the 19th century, Jewish scholars such as Moses Mielziner and Samuel Krauss studied slave-ownership by ancient Jews, and generally concluded that Jewish slaves were treated as merely temporary bondsman, and that Jewish owners treated slaves with special compassion.[79] However, 20th century scholars such as Solomon Zeitlin and Ephraim Urbach, examined Jewish slave-ownership practices more critically, and their historical accounts generally conclude that Jews did own slaves at least through the Maccabbean period, and that it was probably more ubiquitous and humane than earlier scholars had maintained."
Jewish views on slavery - Wikipedia
This is actual evidence of how slaves were treated. Even the critics listed above claim humane treatment. Your statement is just circular logic and presumption of guilt.
There were also NON Jewish slaves.
Any plantation journal and there were many of them details punishment of slaves.