Why do you suppose you know my agenda?
And I pity you.
Yes, you are still waiting. But only because you have ignored the answers that have been given and are waiting for an answer you like.
Not only have you not demonstrated any understanding of Hebrew or of the study of the Jewish texts in their first language, but you have now imputed to me a position vis-a-vis God and his power which is inaccurate. Is intellectual dishonesty a way to further your agenda?
I know your agenda, it includes insults and not responding to questions posed.
I do not need to demonstrate Hebrew knowledge, nor does any other believer, to explain how thousands of Tanakh passages are clearly, obviously and historically fulfilled in Jesus Christ.
I dislike your elitist, illogical view that every Gentile translation is warped. I can already find Jesus in our own Jewish-led translations straight from Hebrew to English.
I haven't ignored the answers you've given, I've responded with follow-up questions. For example, you claim that Jesus is not the fulfillment of prophecies like "He will be with the rich in his death(s) and with sinners in His death(s)" which millions of Christians would recognize as obvious. Rather, you claim God wanted to tell? warn? encourage? Israel that "Some Jews will die near the wealthy, others near bad people".
The question you are seemingly unwilling to answer is, "Why would God feel this burden for us?"
Jewish sages saw Isaiah 53 as speaking of an individual, not plural:
- Targum Jonathan interprets Isaiah 53 with reference to the Messiah (singular).
- The Talmud never interprets Isaiah 53 with reference to the nation of Israel (as a whole), but only to individuals within It.
- The Jerusalem Talmud (Tractate Shekalim 5:1) applies 53:12 to Rabbi Akiva (singular), while the Babylonian Talmud applies 53:4 to the Messiah (singular) in Sanhedrin 98b, 53:10 to the righteous in general in Tractate Berakhot 5a, and 53:12 to Moses (singular) in Tractate Sotah 14a.
- Midrash Rabbah interprets 53:5 with reference to the Messiah (Ruth Rabbah 2:14).
- Yalkut Shimoni applies 52:13 to the Messiah.
Source:
Is the Plural Form of Isaiah 53 Talking About Israel? - ONE FOR ISRAEL Ministry
- “Lamo” can be either plural or singular, as Isaiah elsewhere uses lamo to mean “to it,” not “to them,” Isaiah 44:15: “he makes an idol and bows down to it”. So, if we take lamo to refer to the servant, it could still mean “for him” as opposed to “for them.”
- Septuagint (LXX): εἰς θάνατον (לַמָּוֶת) – The translators of the Septuagint saw a taf at the end of “lamo,” making it “lamavet” – to death. “He was led to death”.
- NJPSV (New Jewish Publication Society Version) understood “nega‘ lamo” as
“For the transgression of my people to whom the stroke was due”. The servant receives a stroke for those for whom he is suffering.
Eitan Bar writes:
“Bemotayv” (בְּמֹתָיו) in Isaiah 53 verse 9
The second time rabbi Asur “noticed” a plural description is in verse 9, where he believes the character is dying multiple deaths, not a single one, and therefore, cannot be the Messiah. He writes (from Hebrew): “Any Hebrew speaker will be amazed. Why does it says “Bemotayv” and not “Bemoto”? How come the word “Moto” in singular does not appear here, yet the word in plural, “Bemotayv”, does? Meaning the servant in Isaiah 53 experienced several deaths, not just one. Didn’t Jesus died only one famous death?…It is clear that the term “Bemotayv” in the bible speaks of plural not singular”.
However, both in biblical Hebrew and in modern Hebrew, a word written in plural form doesn’t always mean more than one referent, but may also indicate collectively (intensive plural). For example: פניו (Panayv) רחמים (Rahamim) אדוניו (Adonayv) are all in plural form, yet have a singular meaning to them.
Jewish scholar of Semitic languages, Dr. Michael Brown, agrees: “Such usage of intensive plurals is extremely common in Hebrew, as recognized by even beginner students of the language.”
There are only two occasions in the Hebrew Scriptures where “death” in plural exists: (1) Isaiah 53:9. (2) Ezekiel 28:10 (מוֹתֵי עֲרֵלִים תָּמוּת). Ezekiel 28:10 clearly states that Ezekiel is using plural deaths (מוֹתֵי) in order to describe a singular death (תָּמוּת).
Now, let us see how bible translators in modern and ancient times understood this verse:
- As found at the Dead Sea Scrolls, this verse was written (before Jesus existed) in the singular: “בומתו”.
- The Jewish sages translating the Septuagint, also understood this verse as talking about the singular, translating it: ἀντὶ τοῦ θανάτου αὐτοῦ = בְּמוֹתוֹ (death in singular).
- The NJPSV (New Jewish Publication Society Version) translated: “And with the rich his tomb”. Modern Jewish version, although they took out “death”, they still choose to translate verse 9 as in the singular, not plural.
- The Targum (Jonathan ben Uzziel) a Jewish translation into Aramaic translated “Bemotayv” into the singular (בְמוֹתָא) and not into the plural (בְמוֹתָיא).
If prophet Isaiah meant the death to be in the plural, he probably would have used “בְמוֹתָ֖ם” such as appears in 2nd Samuel 1:23 (see also Ezekiel 28:10)
Is Asur about to accuse the Prophet Ezekiel as well as the interpretations by Jewish sages of ancient times as being “failures”? Or perhaps Asur would like to blame The Jewish Publication Society as trying to force their Jewish translation to fit Jesus?
Isaiah chapter 53 continues to shout the name of Jesus-Yeshua through the sufferings and death of the Messiah for our sins as a testimony of God’s love for us!