Should Christians Be Keeping the Sabbath?

[Yes]

It is a big topic and one that has been ingrained in Christian thought for almost 2,000 yrs. If you really want to grasp the topic, understanding the true, original meaning of the term gentiles would aid tremendously. Since I've already done the research, I'll share some of it with you or anyone who cares to know the truth about the term. Gentiles was a Latin-- not a Greek-- term.

It was originally used as an adjective, yet today every bible dictionary has it listed as a noun. Dont take my word for it, see for yourself:

Definition of gentilis (adjective, LEM, gentīlis) - Numen - The Latin Lexicon - An Online Latin Dictionary

If you are familiar with English grammar, the difference between a noun and adjective is huge. Instead of gentiles being a group, it is supposed to be describing someone that comes from a particular group. As you know, the nation of Israel was split into two kingdoms. Which is how we find them in the NT. In the NT, gentiles can describe a Jew that comes from the two tribes of the house of Judah (Joh 18:35) , an Israelite coming from the 10 tribes--house of Israel (Rom 11:25), or someone of non-Israelite status (1 Pet 2:12).

Notice the shocking revelation in Merriam-Webster’s New Book of Word Histories entry for “gentiles”:

“In the earliest Roman times, the gens (plural gentes) was a clan; the word is from the Indo-European root gen-‘beget’ and is cognate with our word kin. The plural gentes was also used to designate the peoples of the world, particularly the non-Romans. The people that could be designated by gens thus ran a curious range, from those closest to home to those decidedly foreign.” The derived adjective gentilis was used with both these implications…​

In other words, it is a term that is not suppose to have a racial connotation. It was never meant to distinguish a Jew from a non-Jew. But notice how and why the English translators decided to give it a racial tone:

“In the later Latin of the Christian Church, gentilis and gentes were used respectively to translate Greek “ethnikos “and ta ethne which meant “pagan(s)”—ta ethne [ethnos], was in turn a rendering of Hebrew goyim “non-Jews”. It was by this route the English borrowed its word gentile.”source
​

Do you realize what this means? The very first English translation (John Wycliffe’s), including the ones we read today, inserted the English word “gentiles” for “ethnos”(ethne-plural) under a false premise the Hebrew term “goy-im” always meant a “non-Jew”! Gen 25:23, 35:11, Deu 32:28; Jos 3:17; Jos 4:1; Jos 10:13; 2Sa 7:23; Isa 1:4; Zep 2:9 definitively prove that is certainly not the case!

Scriptures clearly reveal “goy” or its plural "goyim" can apply to both a non-Jew as well as a Jew or Israelite in both testaments. This false assumption has led to a massive misunderstanding of the term and a misidentification of Jacob’s descendants from the past and present! Once we understand the term, we can correctly determine which 'gentiles' are supposed to keep the Sabbath.

I know what you are talking about, except that it just does not matter.

All Israelites are blood related to Abraham. However, as I have already stated, it does not matter if a blood related person became as a Gentile. All people can now be reconciled to God through Jesus.

God says that it is not by human descent. The reason why human descent was important in the past was because God was bringing His Son through a chosen people.

No one has to observe special days anymore. ALL the special days were about the coming Messiah. Jesus is our Sabbath Rest; and, no one's blood matters anymore, only the blood of Jesus.

 

[Yes]

The conference was primarily about the requirement of circumcision for salvation (Act 15:1). It was not about dissolving any of the 10 commandments. James would be contradicting himself for it was he who said you break one of the ten you break them all (Jas 2:10-11). Nowhere in Act 15 or anywhere else in scripture does it state the fourth commandment is no longer a requirement.

I have closely looked at every single passage in scripture concerning the Sabbath, and as you can see by my last several posts, my study of a topic is extensive. I have yet to find any scripture that dissolves the fourth commandment or reassigns the day.

You brought up James. I would like to say something about that.

James was speaking about the Royal Law.

We are to obey the Royal Law. The Royal Law is to love your neighbor as yourself. How do we love our neighbor as ourselves? We do them no harm. The whole Bible is a teaching on HOW TO LOVE. If you say you obey the Royal Law by loving your neighbor, do you steal from them? No. Do you commit adultery with their spouse? No. Do you bear false witness against them? No. Do you murder them? No. What if you do all these things right, but fail on any one of them? THEN YOU ARE GUILTY OF BREAKING THE WHOLE ROYAL LAW OF LOVE YOUR NEIGHBOR AS YOURSELF.

Again, observing special days is nothing anymore. Observing Jesus is everything. We live a life of love, and that is how we keep all Jesus' teachings. We have all the written Word to help us on how to love, if there was any question about it.

Study these scriptures:

James 2:8 If you really keep the royal law found in Scripture, "Love your neighbor as yourself," you are doing right.

James 2:10 For whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles at just one point is guilty of breaking all of it.

James 2:11 For he who said, "You shall not commit adultery," also said, "You shall not murder." If you do not commit adultery but do commit murder, you have become a lawbreaker.

Matthew 7:12 So in everything, do to others what you would have them do to you, for this sums up the Law and the Prophets.

Romans 13:10 Love does no harm to a neighbor. Therefore love is the fulfillment of the law.

 

[JM2C]

Why should Paul be considered authoritative?

We are here to present our arguments from sources available to us and Paul's epistles happens to be my source of arguments otherwise, I don't have anything to argue with you. Baking cookies is not my forte.

 

[james2ko]

Nowhere in Acts 15 did it say that Gentiles should follow any part of the Law of Moses either.

Let me ask you, do you think you could follow the whole Law of Moses without “stumbling at just one point”? That’s what I think..

Jas 2:10 For whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles at just one point is guilty of breaking all of it.

Gal 3:10 All who rely on observing the law are under a curse, for it is written: “Cursed is everyone who does not continue to do everything written in the Book of the Law.”

The context of James' statement involves the 10 commandments. They were in force since creation. God could not impute the sin of murder on Cain had the ten not been in place. Even though the ten were uttered on Mt Sinai, does not mean they were abolished in the NT.

There were three divisions of the law. moral, civil, ceremonial. The moral law--the ten--are forever. The others are temporarily suspended until Christ returns. In Rom 7:12, Paul calls the ten "holy, just and good". Then in Gal 3:10 he completely contradicts himself by saying: "For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse; for it is written, "CURSED IS EVERYONE WHO DOES NOT CONTINUE IN ALL THINGS WHICH ARE WRITTEN IN THE BOOK OF THE LAW, TO DO THEM."

This exemplifies a separation between the 10, which were written with the finger of God and placed inside the ark, and the "book of the law" containing the rest of the law written by Moses and placed outside (beside) of the ark (Deu 31:24-26).

In order to accurately interpret NT statements about the law, we have to determine from the context which "law" is being discussed.

 

[james2ko]

How many gospel do you see here?

Gal 2:7 They saw that God had given me the responsibility of preaching the Good News to the Gentiles, just as he had given Peter the responsibility of preaching to the Jews.

One Gospel being preached to the two kingdoms of Israel--The house of Judah--Jews and the gentiles who were dispersed members of the house of Israel. Your verse is not an absolute statement as Paul also preached to the Jews and Peter to the gentile Israelites.

 

[JM2C]

2. The term “Greek” in vs 28 is “hellene-G1672”. It is translated “gentiles” in other passages. But its more accurate definition is someone who speaks Greek. Strong’s extends the definition to a non-Israelite, which is partially correct, but it can also apply to a Greek speaking Israelite.

“hellene-G1672” does not apply to “Greek speaking Israelite” at all. Just to prove you wrong here are the “hellene-G1672” in the NT all 25 of them.

Jn 7:35 The Jews said to one another, “Where does this man intend to go that we cannot find him? Will he go where our people live scattered among the Greeks, and teach the Greeks?
Jn 12:20 Now there were some Greeks among those who went up to worship at the Feast.
Ac 11:20 Some of them, however, men from Cyprus and Cyrene, went to Antioch and began to speak to Greeks also, telling them the good news about the Lord Jesus.
Ac 14:1 At Iconium Paul and Barnabas went as usual into the Jewish synagogue. There they spoke so effectively that a great number of Jews and Gentiles believed.
Ac 16:1 He came to Derbe and then to Lystra, where a disciple named Timothy lived, whose mother was a Jewess and a believer, but whose father was a Greek.
Ac 16:3 Paul wanted to take him along on the journey, so he circumcised him because of the Jews who lived in that area, for they all knew that his father was a Greek.
Ac 17:4 Some of the Jews were persuaded and joined Paul and Silas, as did a large number of God-fearing Greeks and not a few prominent women.
Ac 18:4 Every Sabbath he reasoned in the synagogue, trying to persuade Jews and Greeks.
Ac 19:10 This went on for two years, so that all the Jews and Greeks who lived in the province of Asia heard the word of the Lord.
Ac 19:17 When this became known to the Jews and Greeks living in Ephesus, they were all seized with fear, and the name of the Lord Jesus was held in high honor.
Ac 20:21 I have declared to both Jews and Greeks that they must turn to God in repentance and have faith in our Lord Jesus.
Ac 21:28 shouting, “Men of Israel, help us! This is the man who teaches all men everywhere against our people and our law and this place. And besides, he has brought Greeks into the temple area and defiled this holy place.”
Ro 1:14 I am obligated both to Greeks and non-Greeks/barbarians, both to the wise and the foolish.
Ro 1:16 I am not ashamed of the gospel, because it is the power of God for the salvation of everyone who believes: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile.
Ro 2:9 There will be trouble and distress for every human being who does evil: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile;
Ro 2:10 but glory, honor and peace for everyone who does good: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile.
Ro 3:9 What shall we conclude then? Are we any better ? Not at all! We have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under sin.
Ro 10:12 For there is no difference between Jew and Gentile—the same Lord is Lord of all and richly blesses all who call on him,
1Co 1:22 Jews demand miraculous signs and Greeks look for wisdom,
1Co 1:24 but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.
1Co 10:32 Do not cause anyone to stumble, whether Jews, Greeks or the church of God—
1Co 12:13 For we were all baptized by one Spirit into one body—whether Jews or Greeks, slave or free—and we were all given the one Spirit to drink.
Gal 2:3 Yet not even Titus, who was with me, was compelled to be circumcised, even though he was a Greek.
Gal 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, slave nor free, male nor female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus.
Col 3:11 Here there is no Greek or Jew, circumcised or uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave or free, but Christ is all, and is in all.

 

[james2ko]

You brought up James. I would like to say something about that.

James was speaking about the Royal Law.

We are to obey the Royal Law. The Royal Law is to love your neighbor as yourself. How do we love our neighbor as ourselves? We do them no harm. The whole Bible is a teaching on HOW TO LOVE. If you say you obey the Royal Law by loving your neighbor, do you steal from them? No. Do you commit adultery with their spouse? No. Do you bear false witness against them? No. Do you murder them? No. What if you do all these things right, but fail on any one of them? THEN YOU ARE GUILTY OF BREAKING THE WHOLE ROYAL LAW OF LOVE YOUR NEIGHBOR AS YOURSELF.

Again, observing special days is nothing anymore. Observing Jesus is everything. We live a life of love, and that is how we keep all Jesus' teachings. We have all the written Word to help us on how to love, if there was any question about it.

Study these scriptures:

James 2:8 If you really keep the royal law found in Scripture, "Love your neighbor as yourself," you are doing right.

James 2:10 For whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles at just one point is guilty of breaking all of it.

James 2:11 For he who said, "You shall not commit adultery," also said, "You shall not murder." If you do not commit adultery but do commit murder, you have become a lawbreaker.

Matthew 7:12 So in everything, do to others what you would have them do to you, for this sums up the Law and the Prophets.

Romans 13:10 Love does no harm to a neighbor. Therefore love is the fulfillment of the law.

The context of James tells us he was referring to to the Royal Law--The ten commandments (vs 11). The first four show us how to love God. The last six show us how to love or neighbor. So yes love is the fulfillment of the 10 commandments. John tells us the same thing:

Joh 14:15 "If you love Me, keep My commandments.

1Jn_5:2-3 By this we know that we love the children of God, when we love God and keep His commandments.3 For this is the love of God, that we keep His commandments. And His commandments are not burdensome.​

Christ tells the rich young ruler, and by extension to us, what commandments to obey in order to be saved. He names five of the ten commandments. Does that mean the rich ruler can break the other five and be saved???? Of course not. The indication is he needs to obey all ten!! (Mat 19:16-22).

This implies Paul could not be doing away with any of the 10 commandments. He was suspending the laws concerning circumcision, certain judgments, and sacrifices.

 

[metis]

One simply cannot separate the 10 from the other 603 Laws as it is made clear throughout both the Torah and Tanakh that all of the Law was given by God, but not all at one time. Moses brought down the first 10 in tablet form, but if one keeps reading he continues to add to that list while stating that they are also from God. What preceded the 10 were what we call the seven Noachide Laws.

 

[JM2C]

One Gospel being preached to the two kingdoms of Israel--The house of Judah--Jews and the gentiles who were dispersed members of the house of Israel. Your verse is not an absolute statement as Paul also preached to the Jews and Peter to the gentile Israelites.

There is no such thing as Gentile Israelites. My verse? Galatians 2:7 came from the bible.

Gal 2:7 On the contrary, they saw that I/Paul had been entrusted with the task of preaching the gospel to the Gentiles, just as Peter had been to the Jews.

Paul and Peter were preaching the same Gospel to the Gentiles/uncircumcision and to the Jews/circumcision ITO. Now, what is the difference between the Jews and the Gentiles as far as the Gospel is concern? None! The same Gospel.

Gal 2:8 For God, who was at work in the ministry of Peter as an apostle to the Jews, was also at work in my ministry as an apostle to the Gentiles.

The same or only 1 gospel came from God. The gospel of the Lord Jesus was preached to the Gentiles by Paul and this same Gospel by Peter to the Jews. Again, there is no such thing as Gentile Israelites.

The only difference between the Jews and the Gentiles is the one they agreed upon in Acts 15, and that is, NO Law of Moses for the Gentiles to follow, but for the Jews they could still continue the Law of Moses, like circumcision and the Sabbath.

IOW, a Jew cannot stop being a Jew or stop the Law of Moses as per their tradition if they want to. The only thing that Paul wants to get across to the Jews/circumcision was that no one can be justified by the Law of Moses, but as far as the tradition according to the Law of Moses a Jew cannot stop being a Jew. Therefore, a Jew/circumcision cannot force Gentiles/uncircumcision to follow the Law of Moses like what the “false brother –Gal 2:4” did.

Ac 13:39 Through him everyone who believes is justified from everything you could not be justified from by the law of Moses.

This is what Paul meant by justification by faith and not by the Law of Moses. There is nothing wrong with the Law of Moses if you are a Jew as far as tradition is concern of course, but as far as being justified by it, no one can be justified by the Law of Moses, only by faith both to the Jew/circumcision and the Gentiles/uncircumcision.

 

[james2ko]

“hellene-G1672” does not apply to “Greek speaking Israelite” at all. Just to prove you wrong here are the “hellene-G1672” in the NT all 25 of them.

Jn 7:35 The Jews said to one another, “Where does this man intend to go that we cannot find him? Will he go where our people live scattered among the Greeks, and teach the Greeks?
Jn 12:20 Now there were some Greeks among those who went up to worship at the Feast.
Ac 11:20 Some of them, however, men from Cyprus and Cyrene, went to Antioch and began to speak to Greeks also, telling them the good news about the Lord Jesus.
Ac 14:1 At Iconium Paul and Barnabas went as usual into the Jewish synagogue. There they spoke so effectively that a great number of Jews and Gentiles believed.
Ac 16:1 He came to Derbe and then to Lystra, where a disciple named Timothy lived, whose mother was a Jewess and a believer, but whose father was a Greek.
Ac 16:3 Paul wanted to take him along on the journey, so he circumcised him because of the Jews who lived in that area, for they all knew that his father was a Greek.
Ac 17:4 Some of the Jews were persuaded and joined Paul and Silas, as did a large number of God-fearing Greeks and not a few prominent women.
Ac 18:4 Every Sabbath he reasoned in the synagogue, trying to persuade Jews and Greeks.
Ac 19:10 This went on for two years, so that all the Jews and Greeks who lived in the province of Asia heard the word of the Lord.
Ac 19:17 When this became known to the Jews and Greeks living in Ephesus, they were all seized with fear, and the name of the Lord Jesus was held in high honor.
Ac 20:21 I have declared to both Jews and Greeks that they must turn to God in repentance and have faith in our Lord Jesus.
Ac 21:28 shouting, “Men of Israel, help us! This is the man who teaches all men everywhere against our people and our law and this place. And besides, he has brought Greeks into the temple area and defiled this holy place.”
Ro 1:14 I am obligated both to Greeks and non-Greeks/barbarians, both to the wise and the foolish.
Ro 1:16 I am not ashamed of the gospel, because it is the power of God for the salvation of everyone who believes: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile.
Ro 2:9 There will be trouble and distress for every human being who does evil: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile;
Ro 2:10 but glory, honor and peace for everyone who does good: first for the Jew, then for the Gentile.
Ro 3:9 What shall we conclude then? Are we any better ? Not at all! We have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under sin.
Ro 10:12 For there is no difference between Jew and Gentile—the same Lord is Lord of all and richly blesses all who call on him,
1Co 1:22 Jews demand miraculous signs and Greeks look for wisdom,
1Co 1:24 but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.
1Co 10:32 Do not cause anyone to stumble, whether Jews, Greeks or the church of God—
1Co 12:13 For we were all baptized by one Spirit into one body—whether Jews or Greeks, slave or free—and we were all given the one Spirit to drink.
Gal 2:3 Yet not even Titus, who was with me, was compelled to be circumcised, even though he was a Greek.
Gal 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, slave nor free, male nor female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus.
Col 3:11 Here there is no Greek or Jew, circumcised or uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave or free, but Christ is all, and is in all.

Of course it does.

Rom 4:1 But if so, what can we say about Abraham, our forefather by natural descent?
Rom 4:16 That is why all turns upon faith; it is to make the promise a matter of favour, to make it secure for all the offspring, not simply for hose who are adherents of the Law but also for those who share the faith of Abraham — of Abraham who is the father of us all ​

There were Jews and gentiles in the Roman congregation. The Roman gentiles were also hellenes yet Paul states they are of the same physical stock as he was---Israelite. He confirms it in (Rom 9:4).

" who are Israelites, to whom pertain the adoption, the glory, the covenants, the giving of the law, the service of God, and the promises;"​

Only physical Israelites are recipients of the promises and covenants. The same for the Corinthians:

1Co 10:1 For I would have you know this, my brothers, that while our fathers all lived under the cloud, all crossed through the sea, ​

Paul uses a first person plural pronoun (our) in identifying the forefathers of the Corinthian congregation! In verse eight, Paul admonishes the Corinthians not to engage in the same fornication as their fathers did in Numbers 25. Paul would not be inspired to make such a statement if the “gentiles” in the Corinthian congregation were just “spiritually” and not at all physically related to those of the Exodus!

Galatians has already been discussed and proven (Are you reading my posts?).

In John 7:35, who would they be talking about as being the dispersed? Historically and Biblically, it cannot be any but the House of Israel and the bulk of the House of Judah. That this is so accords with prophecy. Hence as we shall see, “Greeks” is used as a synonym throughout the New Testament for the Dispersion located amongst the nations of the former Greek empire.

To talk about non-Jews being scattered among non-Jews would be silly and meaningless. If we were to take the meaning of “gentiles” as belonging to other nations referring to Israelites scattered among other nations, this would be acceptable. This mistranslation is also found in the following places where it is rendered as “gentiles”.

In the passage in Colossians, can a Greek be of Israelite descent? We have proven that an African can be an Israelite. If an African can be an Israelite, so can a Greek speaker. I have proven from scripture how these Greek speaking 'gentiles' are of Israelite descent. You have yet to prove they are not.

 

[Yes]

Scriptures clearly reveal “goy” or its plural "goyim" can apply to both a non-Jew as well as a Jew or Israelite in both testaments. This false assumption has led to a massive misunderstanding of the term and a misidentification of Jacob’s descendants from the past and present! Once we understand the term, we can correctly determine which 'gentiles' are supposed to keep the Sabbath.
=The context of James tells us he was referring to to the Royal Law--The ten commandments (vs 11). The first four show us how to love God. The last six show us how to love or neighbor. So yes love is the fulfillment of the 10 commandments. John tells us the same thing:

Joh 14:15 "If you love Me, keep My commandments.

1Jn_5:2-3 By this we know that we love the children of God, when we love God and keep His commandments.3 For this is the love of God, that we keep His commandments. And His commandments are not burdensome.​

Christ tells the rich young ruler, and by extension to us, what commandments to obey in order to be saved. He names five of the ten commandments. Does that mean the rich ruler can break the other five and be saved???? Of course not. The indication is he needs to obey all ten!! (Mat 19:16-22).

God had not yet nailed the rules and regulations to the cross. Jesus was not yet sacrificed.

Colossians 2:14 having canceled the charge of our legal indebtedness, which stood against us and condemned us; he has taken it away, nailing it to the cross.

This implies Paul could not be doing away with any of the 10 commandments. He was suspending the laws concerning circumcision, certain judgments, and sacrifices.

Observing days is nothing anymore. Observing Jesus all day everyday is everything. All those special days were about Jesus. Jesus is our Sabbath Rest.

 

[james2ko]

There is no such thing as Gentile Israelites. My verse? Galatians 2:7 came from the bible.

Gal 2:7 On the contrary, they saw that I/Paul had been entrusted with the task of preaching the gospel to the Gentiles, just as Peter had been to the Jews.

Paul and Peter were preaching the same Gospel to the Gentiles/uncircumcision and to the Jews/circumcision ITO. Now, what is the difference between the Jews and the Gentiles as far as the Gospel is concern? None! The same Gospel.

Gal 2:8 For God, who was at work in the ministry of Peter as an apostle to the Jews, was also at work in my ministry as an apostle to the Gentiles.

The same or only 1 gospel came from God. The gospel of the Lord Jesus was preached to the Gentiles by Paul and this same Gospel by Peter to the Jews. Again, there is no such thing as Gentile Israelites.

The only difference between the Jews and the Gentiles is the one they agreed upon in Acts 15, and that is, NO Law of Moses for the Gentiles to follow, but for the Jews they could still continue the Law of Moses, like circumcision and the Sabbath.

IOW, a Jew cannot stop being a Jew or stop the Law of Moses as per their tradition if they want to. The only thing that Paul wants to get across to the Jews/circumcision was that no one can be justified by the Law of Moses, but as far as the tradition according to the Law of Moses a Jew cannot stop being a Jew. Therefore, a Jew/circumcision cannot force Gentiles/uncircumcision to follow the Law of Moses like what the “false brother –Gal 2:4” did.

Ac 13:39 Through him everyone who believes is justified from everything you could not be justified from by the law of Moses.

This is what Paul meant by justification by faith and not by the Law of Moses. There is nothing wrong with the Law of Moses if you are a Jew as far as tradition is concern of course, but as far as being justified by it, no one can be justified by the Law of Moses, only by faith both to the Jew/circumcision and the Gentiles/uncircumcision.

You and Yes continue to insist there are no gentile Israelites, yet neither of you have addressed any of the verses I posted that say otherwise. How do you explain Rom 4:1,16: 1 co 10:1?

 

[Servant_of_the_One1]

According to Paul, the mosaic law is dead and buried. According to Jesus pbuh u must honour the 10commandments and follow the law of Moses pbuh.

Paulinists dont do sabbath, they eat pork unlike Jesus pbuh, they worship Jesus pbuh against his wishes.

 

[james2ko]

God had not yet nailed the rules and regulations to the cross. Jesus was not yet sacrificed.

Colossians 2:14 having canceled the charge of our legal indebtedness, which stood against us and condemned us; he has taken it away, nailing it to the cross.


Observing days is nothing anymore. Observing Jesus all day everyday is everything. All those special days were about Jesus. Jesus is our Sabbath Rest.

Notice what was taken away in Col 2:14:

The handwriting of requirements or charge of our legal indebtedness (often also called the hand-writing of ordinances) or certificate of debt was wiped away and nailed to the cross. Which requirements were wiped out?

Please understand that the expression "the handwriting of requirements" (cheirógrafon toís dógmasin) is a Greek legal expression that signifies the penalty which a lawbreaker had to pay--it does not signify the laws that are to be obeyed--only the penalty. It is only through the acceptance of the sacrifice of Jesus Christ that the penalty was wiped out ("the handwriting of requirements"). But only the penalty, not the law!

 

[Yes]

Notice what was taken away in Col 2:14:

The handwriting of requirements or charge of our legal indebtedness (often also called the hand-writing of ordinances) or certificate of debt was wiped away and nailed to the cross. Which requirements were wiped out?

Please understand that the expression "the handwriting of requirements" (cheirógrafon toís dógmasin) is a Greek legal expression that signifies the penalty which a lawbreaker had to pay--it does not signify the laws that are to be obeyed--only the penalty. It is only through the acceptance of the sacrifice of Jesus Christ that the penalty was wiped out ("the handwriting of requirements"). But only the penalty, not the law!

Jesus fulfilled the Law

Jesus fulfilled the prophets’ means all the prophets prophesied about Jesus, and everything they said about him, he fulfilled.

Jesus fulfilled the law means, all sins were paid for.

The Law said to circumcise the flesh for a sign of faith. Jesus fulfilled that Law to us we do not have to circumcise ourselves in the flesh, because the Holy Spirit circumcises our hearts, the Holy Spirit is the sign of our faith.

The Law commanded various external washings, to make ourselves clean. Jesus fulfilled that Law for us---his blood makes us clean, once and for all. The Law commanded that we observe special days. Jesus fulfilled that Law, because ALL those special days are about Jesus, when we observe Jesus, we observe those special days---Jesus is our Sabbath rest. Jesus is our Passover, etc.

The Law said blood must be shed for the forgiveness of sins, we were told to give animal sacrifices. Jesus fulfilled that Law, because he is the Sacrificial Lamb of God.

See, Jesus fulfilled the law. Since we have salvation through Jesus, it is a greater salvation. Is it greater to observe the Son of God instead of special days? Is it better to be cleaned by the blood of God than by animals? Is it better to be circumcised in the heart by the Holy Spirit, than with a physical circumcision done by the hands of men? The Jews had to do certain ceremonial things, just to go to the temple to worship God. Through Jesus, we are made clean, and we become the temple of the Living God. Circumcision, special days, various external washings, and the sacrifice of animals...these were all teachings tools, a shadow of what was coming, Jesus Christ.

 

[JM2C]

The context of James' statement involves the 10 commandments. They were in force since creation. God could not impute the sin of murder on Cain had the ten not been in place. Even though the ten were uttered on Mt Sinai, does not mean they were abolished in the NT.

There were three divisions of the law. moral, civil, ceremonial. The moral law--the ten--are forever. The others are temporarily suspended until Christ returns. In Rom 7:12, Paul calls the ten "holy, just and good". Then in Gal 3:10 he completely contradicts himself by saying: "For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse; for it is written, "CURSED IS EVERYONE WHO DOES NOT CONTINUE IN ALL THINGS WHICH ARE WRITTEN IN THE BOOK OF THE LAW, TO DO THEM."

This exemplifies a separation between the 10, which were written with the finger of God and placed inside the ark, and the "book of the law" containing the rest of the law written by Moses and placed outside (beside) of the ark (Deu 31:24-26).


In order to accurately interpret NT statements about the law, we have to determine from the context which "law" is being discussed.

The Law of God, the 10C, started with the Israelites. The Book of the Covenant [from Gen.20:22 to 23:33] is the exposition of the Ten Commandments.

You cannot separate these two ‘cause they are one piece of Law of God that He gave to Moses for the Israelites and not to any Gentiles except for the “Alien/Ger” in Exodus 12:48.
The moral, civil, ceremonial are parts of the Law of Moses put together by God as “ONE PIECE OF LAW” for the Israelites and not to be extended to ANY Gentiles then and today.
You won’t be able to understand the book of the covenant without the 10C and vice versa. What is so hard to understand here?

This is what Paul was fighting about in Acts and in his epistles for the Gentiles.

 

[james2ko]

The Law of God, the 10C, started with the Israelites. The Book of the Covenant [from Gen.20:22 to 23:33] is the exposition of the Ten Commandments.

You cannot separate these two ‘cause they are one piece of Law of God that He gave to Moses for the Israelites and not to any Gentiles except for the “Alien/Ger” in Exodus 12:48.
The moral, civil, ceremonial are parts of the Law of Moses put together by God as “ONE PIECE OF LAW” for the Israelites and not to be extended to ANY Gentiles then and today.
You won’t be able to understand the book of the covenant without the 10C and vice versa. What is so hard to understand here?

This is what Paul was fighting about in Acts and in his epistles for the Gentiles.

If the law of God started with the Israelites whose laws, commandments, and statutes was Abraham keeping---God's! Which law was Cain breaking? The holy law of God--one of the ten--that was already in place. The same law the rich ruler had to obey to be saved. I'm not sure why that is so difficult to understand.

 

[Desert Snake]

If the law of God started with the Israelites whose laws, commandments, and statutes was Abraham keeping---God's! Which law was Cain breaking? The holy law of God--one of the ten--that was already in place. The same law the rich ruler had to obey to be saved. I'm not sure why that is so difficult to understand.

Jesus /as man, blatantly broke the Shabbat, and encouraged others to do so. So, in the context of non-Jesus teaching, you are correct. But then so would all the other 'laws' apply. It's a catch 22.

 

[Desert Snake]

Rather Jesus changed the rules regarding the Shabbat. You can't have the priestly rules and Eshus rules at the same time.

 

[james2ko]

Jesus fulfilled the Law

Jesus fulfilled the prophets’ means all the prophets prophesied about Jesus, and everything they said about him, he fulfilled.

Jesus fulfilled the law means, all sins were paid for.

The Law said to circumcise the flesh for a sign of faith. Jesus fulfilled that Law to us we do not have to circumcise ourselves in the flesh, because the Holy Spirit circumcises our hearts, the Holy Spirit is the sign of our faith.

The Law commanded various external washings, to make ourselves clean. Jesus fulfilled that Law for us---his blood makes us clean, once and for all. The Law commanded that we observe special days. Jesus fulfilled that Law, because ALL those special days are about Jesus, when we observe Jesus, we observe those special days---Jesus is our Sabbath rest. Jesus is our Passover, etc.

The Law said blood must be shed for the forgiveness of sins, we were told to give animal sacrifices. Jesus fulfilled that Law, because he is the Sacrificial Lamb of God.

See, Jesus fulfilled the law. Since we have salvation through Jesus, it is a greater salvation. Is it greater to observe the Son of God instead of special days? Is it better to be cleaned by the blood of God than by animals? Is it better to be circumcised in the heart by the Holy Spirit, than with a physical circumcision done by the hands of men? The Jews had to do certain ceremonial things, just to go to the temple to worship God. Through Jesus, we are made clean, and we become the temple of the Living God. Circumcision, special days, various external washings, and the sacrifice of animals...these were all teachings tools, a shadow of what was coming, Jesus Christ.

Jesus fulfilled baptism by being baptized, not eliminating baptism. He would not tell the rich young ruler to keep the 10 commandments to be saved only to do away with them. In many of the verses following (Mat 5:19-37), Jesus proves that He did indeed come to "magnify the law and make it honorable (Isa 42:21). Not do away with it.