John D. Brey
Well-Known Member
It is incredibly intetesting what you have just said.
I guess it is also connected to the fact that when Eve is created, she is called isha ...from ish (male)...and it is a very interesting term because even in the Vulgate she is not called mulier (woman) but virago from vir (male).
The Jewish sage are aware that in Hebrew a word isn't the lowest common denominator of meaning. Every word breaks down into glyphs (consonant letters), or heiro-glyphs (Hebrew retains sacred pictographic meaning) such that the individual consonants making up a Hebrew word reveal deeper (hidden) aspects of the whole word and larger text.
Since Mary is the archetype of the prototype (Mary is a latter day type of the first human ---Ha-adam --- as the first human existed prior to Genesis 2:21), we can know that the first human, Ha-adam, had a female body indwelt by the messianic-male (the original androgyny) prior to and without phallic copulation providing the means for that male to be there. Had the desecration that takes place in Genesis 2:21 not occurred, such that phallic copulation would have been impossible (since Genesis 2:21 is the manufacture not of female flesh, but of the male flesh, the phallus) Ha-adam would have given birth to Messiah on the first Sabbath:
The primal flaw must be mended so that all things can return to their proper place, to their original posture. . . If Adam had not sinned the world would have entered the Messianic state on the first Sabbath after creation, with no historical process whatever.
Gershom Scholem, The Messianic Idea in Judaism, p. 46.
Gershom Scholem, The Messianic Idea in Judaism, p. 46.
John