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Maybe read a biography on King James.Hi I'm new to forums looking for clarification on scriptures in KJV.
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Maybe read a biography on King James.Hi I'm new to forums looking for clarification on scriptures in KJV.
What translation is better
Any ideas as to which translation you prefer.
To me a 'better', so to speak, translation would be in modern-day English.
As far as the Christian Scriptures are concerned, a Greek Interlinear showing the Greek on one side of the page with the English on the other helps with comparing translations. (Paraphrased versions are Not translations )
As far as the old Hebrew Scriptures I consult the translated Stone Edition TANACH
I will check out the jubilee maybe i am missing something thanksI find that many connect the two forms as being the same.
In the modern-day slave-trade business those people were sold by their own people to other peoples.
Please notice in ancient Israel if the master mistreated his slave, then his slave was No longer a slave.
Please note: Exodus 21:20-21; Exodus 21:26-27 (KJV uses the word servant, but the Hebrew says slave)
Slaves were to be treated as ' hired help ' according to Leviticus 25:39-40.
The Israelites were to have love for others as mentioned at Leviticus 19:17-18.
Also, you may want to keep in mind that in ancient Israel there were No jails or debtors prisons.
So, if a person fell into poverty then he could serve as a slave to pay off his debts.
The ' slave ' period could only last up to six years, the seventh year they were set free.
You might want to look up information about the 'Jubilee Year ' because when that year come debtors were set free.
That is some pretty good advice but unless one reads Greek, an interlinear is of little value IMO. Good translations are not paraphrases.
I have never heard of the Stone Edition, but IMO, the NASB is accurate for both testaments.
I understand that part but thats for fellow Hebrew's,people from other nations fall under different rules and a hebrew slave could become a slave for life if given a wife and has kids he doesn't want to leave and they could beat them
The reason I mentioned the Stone Edition ( Tanach ) is because like a Greek Interlinear, the Stone Edition shows both the Hebrew and the English, a Hebrew Interlinear.
One can consult with a Hebrew professor, and a Greek professor, and researchers can refer to the ancient manuscripts, so an interlinear Greek or Hebrew is of GREAT value to me.
Also, since the Bible is Not written in ABC order, then comparing the corresponding cross-reference verses and passages by subject or by topic arrangement also shows the internal harmony among the Bible writers.
Yeah i have never heard of stone edition eitherThat is some pretty good advice but unless one reads Greek, an interlinear is of little value IMO. Good translations are not paraphrases.
I have never heard of the Stone Edition, but IMO, the NASB is accurate for both testaments.
I might be wrong but i think its in exodus 21 verse 20-21 it does say smite not beat though in kjvYes, a slave ( treated like hired help ) who was Not beaten, nor mistreated, so what verses says beat them.
I do see where being a servant/slave for life as an indication of that then one's ear would be pierced.
I don't see ' beat ' in the verses at Deuteronomy 15:16-17 nor in comparison to Exodus 21:5-6.
I think anytime someone takes out a loan, its slavery. The borrower is servant to the lender. So many people are so high in debt that they basically are working for the people who loaned them money.Ok thanks i was mainly talking about the slavery part and how i dont see much difference between slavery in south and slavery in the bible because its still owning another person
I dont think loans are slavery because the lender doesn't own the person as property.I think anytime someone takes out a loan, its slavery. The borrower is servant to the lender. So many people are so high in debt that they basically are working for the people who loaned them money.
I have read some different translations mostly kjv and niv
Yeah i have never heard of stone edition either
I might be wrong but i think its in exodus 21 verse 20-21 it does say smite not beat though in kjv
I dont think loans are slavery because the lender doesn't own the person as property.
I'm going to be very frank here;I think anytime someone takes out a loan, its slavery. The borrower is servant to the lender. So many people are so high in debt that they basically are working for the people who loaned them money.
I agree it is insultingI'm going to be very frank here;
Your definition of "slavery" is almost insulting to the countless millions who've been actually enslaved. Africans in pre-Civil-War America, the majority of those conquered by Nazi Germany, victims of the Barbary Slave trade, so on so forth.
I dont think loans are slavery because the lender doesn't own the person as property.
I'm going to be very frank here;
Your definition of "slavery" is almost insulting to the countless millions who've been actually enslaved. Africans in pre-Civil-War America, the majority of those conquered by Nazi Germany, victims of the Barbary Slave trade, so on so forth.
Why didn't Leviticus 24:17 apply in exodus 2:12The sacred Hebrew writings began with the ' Tanakh' or 'Tanach'.
Tanakh comes from the three (3)divisions of the Jewish Scriptures [Ta Na Kh, or Ch ] Law, Prophets, Writings.
Exodus 21:20-21 KJV and if a man smite his servant, or his maid, with a rod, and he dies under his hand; he [the man] shall be surely punished. Verse 21 continues if he continues a day or two, he [the man] shall not be punished, and the reason given is because the slave is his money.
In verse 20 the Hebrew uses the word ' avenged ' [Not punished] so the slave would be 'avenged ' please see Leviticus 24:17.
If he survives, then he shall Not be 'avenged' because he is his property, or in other words, the slave was someone bought with the owner's money to pay off the debt til 6 years are up, or til the Jubilee Year.
Why didn't Leviticus 24:17 apply in exodus 2:12
Ok that makes sense now thanksInteresting question ^ above ^ and I find the answer to be: because Exodus 2:12 took place long before the Constitution of the Mosaic Law went into effect. Leviticus 24:17 is part of that temporary Law for ancient Israel.
Moses, before the Mosaic Law, I find according to Acts of the Apostles 7:24-25, that Moses avenged the abused person.