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Saying or writing Jehovah, isn't wrong...

Tumah

Veteran Member
Thank you for your informative reply, however please keep in mind that God can Not take the limited form of a person.
That is meaning a limited form of a 'human person' as Christendom (apostate Christianity) teaches.
Hebrews 9:24 does consider the God of the Holy Scriptures as a person but a spirit person.
You understand, I hope, that in terms of the idea of G-d being limited by dimensions whether through virtue of a flesh and blood body or a "spirit" body, makes no difference.

Hebrews 9:24 does consider the God of the Holy Scriptures as a person but a spirit person.
God sent his pre-human heavenly Son to Earth for us to be Messiah.
The Tetragrammaton God created the pre-human Jesus in the heavens.
So you've made your god into both the creator and the created, to be timeless and time bound. In other words, as before, you're trying to straddle the fence by making your god both limitless and limited.

Revelation 3:14 teaches that heavenly Jesus was the 'beginning of the creation' (causative-ness) by God.
In other words, pre-human Jesus was, so to speak, first born in the heavens before all other creation.
So, yes God ' causes to become ' (causative-ness) starting with pre-human heavenly Jesus.
Yes, too God's ability to 'cause events according to His will or purpose' as per Genesis 3:15.
Any thoughts about that first (causative-ness) prophecy_________
I have no idea what you're trying to do here. I did not make the argument that Christianity lacks the concept of a causative god. So this is clearly not a rebuttal.

I find Elo-him and Ado-nai are 'titles' Like Lord and God are titles and Not the Tetragrammaton (YHWY) name.
Mr. and Mrs. him and her, are Not personal names although they can refer to a specific person.
To me the Tetragrammaton name refers to one specific person: the causative God of the Holy Scriptures.
No, anyone can be called Mr. and Mrs. There are no false gods that are called Elo-him or Ado-nai. These "titles" are specific to the G-d of the Jewish people. And a title that only ever refers to one being is a name.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
Unto whom was God referring to, when God said to king David in
Psalm 110:1--"The Lord said unto my lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool"
Notice ( The LORD said) this being
the LORD God of creation.
( Unto my lord) this being king David
When a person finds (LORD) ( Lord) in capitals, this indicates the Lord God of creation
Now when (lord) is in lower case letters, this being a human such as king David as being called lord.
When a person finds ( God ) in capital letters, this being the God of creation.
Now when ( god ) in lower case letters, this being a lesser god. Than the God of creation.
Notice in the bible the book of Acts 7:43--"Yea, ye took up the tabernacle of Moloch, and the star of your god Remphan, figures which ye made to worship them: and I will carry you away beyond Babylon"
Notice here ( your god Remphan ) ( god)
Being in lower case letters, indicating a lesser god, than the God of creation.
The same with ( Lord) or ( LORD ) indicating the Lord God.
Than ( lord ) in lower case letters, which is indicating a lesser lord than the Lord God.
In the Book of Matthew Jesus turns to the Pharisees and asks them,
What do you think about the Christ? Whose son is he? (Matthew 22:41-44)
The question in laymen’s terms is, “Of whom is the messiah supposed to be a descendant?”
They said to him, “The son of David.” He said to them, “How then does David in the spirit call him ‘Lord,’ saying, ‘The Lord said to my Lord, “Sit at My right hand, till I make your enemies your footstool?”’ If David then called him Lord, how is he his son?” No one was able to answer him a word, neither did any man from that day forth ask him any more questions. (Matthew 22:41-44)
The answer is, ( Lord ) ( L) in higher case letter, being the Lord God.
The (lord ) ( l ) in lower case letter being king David.
The LORD God said unto my lord king David. sit at my right hand, till I make your enemies your footstool.

I am wondering if you really believe King David is a Priest in the order of Melchizedek ___________Psalms 110:4
How could King David be at God's right hand when King David is still dead as per Acts of the Apostles 2:34_____
It is Jesus Christ, the promised seed of Genesis 3:15, who now rules from Heaven.
It is Jesus, Not David, who serves as mankind's High Priest -> Hebrews 7:21,Hebrews 7:25-26
Besides when David is resurrected I find he his Not king according to Ezekiel 34:23-24 but as a ' prince ' on Earth.
This is in harmony with Psalms 45:16.
I find just how long David will be prince according to Ezekiel 37:25 B.
Thus, Jesus is the ' king ' mentioned at Isaiah 32 and it is David as a 'prince'.
So, the upper-case LORD in KJV Psalms 110 is the Tetragrammaton (YHWH) for God.
The lower-case Lord in KJV Psalms 110 is the 'Lord Jesus' who is both king and high priest.
 

Faithofchristian

Well-Known Member
I am wondering if you really believe King David is a Priest in the order of Melchizedek ___________Psalms 110:4
How could King David be at God's right hand when King David is still dead as per Acts of the Apostles 2:34_____
It is Jesus Christ, the promised seed of Genesis 3:15, who now rules from Heaven.
It is Jesus, Not David, who serves as mankind's High Priest -> Hebrews 7:21,Hebrews 7:25-26
Besides when David is resurrected I find he his Not king according to Ezekiel 34:23-24 but as a ' prince ' on Earth.
This is in harmony with Psalms 45:16.
I find just how long David will be prince according to Ezekiel 37:25 B.
Thus, Jesus is the ' king ' mentioned at Isaiah 32 and it is David as a 'prince'.
So, the upper-case LORD in KJV Psalms 110 is the Tetragrammaton (YHWH) for God.
The lower-case Lord in KJV Psalms 110 is the 'Lord Jesus' who is both king and high priest.

Nope not at all, the LORD all in capitals,
is Christ Jesus,
The lower case lord, being king David.

The flesh body of king David is dead and laying in the earth, but as for king David himself is with God.

If you had notice in Psalm 110:4
( LORD ) being in higher case, this indicating the Lord God. And not king David.

( Prince) in higher case ( P) indicates the Lord God.
( prince ) in lower case ( p ) indicates a lesser
( prince ) than ( Prince ) ( P ) in higher case.

Notice in the book of Daniel 9:25-26---"
25--"Know therefore and understand, that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks: the street shall be built again, and the wall, even in troublous times.

26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined"

Notice there are two princes being talk about.

The question is, Who's, who

One Prince in higher case and the other in lower case. ( Prince ) ( P ) ( prince ) ( p )

So Whos, who.

Revelation 17:14-- Lord of lords, King of kings.

Notice ( Lord ) ( L ) in higher case, and the other in lower case ( l )
Notice ( King ) in higher case ( K ) and the other ( king ) in lower case ( k )

So Who's, who?
 
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Desert Snake

Veteran Member
I am wondering to which ' original ' you are referring _____________
I find in the old Hebrews Scriptures at Psalms 8:1 by David, ' 'Hashem ', our Master, how mighty is Your Name......'
Thus the Tetragrammaton at Psalms 8:1 in Hebrew would be Yahweh or Yehowah and Latinized into English as Jehovah our Lord......

Who are the two (2) LORD/Lords being talked about in Psalms 110 _____________
The KJV. Now, the concept of what or how, what texts were used, for that, is another matter. However the question or posed argument was the nature of that verse...the argument hasn't been explained, in other words how that relates, to not saying or writing, Jehovah.
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
Nope not at all, the LORD all in capitals,
is Christ Jesus,
The lower case lord, being king David.
So, that is your argument.

As I read it, and, as the first english reference goes, as well, the verse says
Psalms 8:1

'Lord, our Lord'. Both referring to the 'Lord'. Both names here referring to the English of Deific 'Lord'.

In other words, neither Lord name, here is referring to David.

We don't make this disctinction, for various reasons, and if one is a Christian, and following your argument, there is no reason for you to be doing that.

'
 
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Faithofchristian

Well-Known Member
So, that is your argument.

As I read it, and, as the first english reference goes, as well, the verse says
Psalms 8:1

'Lord, our Lord'. Both referring to the 'Lord', who is called JHVH, or, Jehovah, and Adonai, without a disctinction between this reference.

In other words, neither Lord name, here is referring to David.

We don't make this disctinction, for various reasons, and if one is a Christian, and following your argument, there is no reason for you to be doing that.

'

Look Psalm 8:1---"O Lord, our Lord, how excellent is thy name in all the earth! who hast set thy glory above the heavens"

Notice ( LORD ) are all upper case versus
( Lord) which are in lower case.

This ( LORD) signifying a much higher LORD than the ( Lord) in lower case letters.

Didn't you learn this in grade school.
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
Look Psalm 8:1---"O Lord, our Lord, how excellent is thy name in all the earth! who hast set thy glory above the heavens"

Notice ( LORD ) are all upper case versus
( Lord) which are in lower case.

This ( LORD) signifying a much higher LORD than the ( Lord) in lower case letters.

Didn't you learn this in grade school.
That would make your interpretation, 'our lord', not referring to JHVH.
Note the specification, 'our Lord'.

So, reading the verse in that manner, you would presumably be calling a different god, or person, , etc., your 'lord'?

Your interpretation, or methodology, doesn't make sense.
 
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URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
The KJV. Now, the concept of what or how, what texts were used, for that, is another matter. However the question or posed argument was the nature of that verse...the argument hasn't been explained, in other words how that relates, to not saying or writing, Jehovah.
I find the Bible was Not originally written in KJV English, but Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic.
So, the Hebrew Tetragrammaton (YHWH) name was translated into English at Psalms 83:18 as Jehovah.
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
I find the Bible was Not originally written in KJV English, but Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic.
So, the Hebrew Tetragrammaton (YHWH) name was translated into English at Psalms 83:18 as Jehovah.
The original KJV has 'Lord' , and 'Lord', no letter differentiation, for that verse being discussed.

The English Bible, was translated, in a certain methodology, making it so, one can't argue the English Bible, 'irregardless' of that methodology. That is like using a text to refute itself, basically.

So, in the original KJV, in that verse being discussed, Psalms 8:1, the Tetragrammaton, isn't actually transliterated, in that manner.
 
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