Geez. If you're reading that from my statement then I think you're intentionally misreading it.
Because your question is liking asking "So Mexico was the country where modern America is?" in order to counter the claim of Americans settling, seceding, and annexing in the case of Texas.
Which is such a ridiculous notion I cannot fathom you're doing anything other than willfully misreading things.
Should be interesting to see how you choose to misread this particular comment, but I probably won't be replying further to you since you show no effort in simply not willfully misreading things.
I'm just piecing together what you wrote commenting on what I wrote:
1. You wrote "Before the Mexican-American war, you had American settlers going into Mexican lands"
2. In explaining the flaw in your analogy I constructed "Before the Israeli/X war, you had Israeli settlers going into X's land."
but didn't know what X is. So you clarified:
3. X = Syria.
So that would mean that "Before the Israeli/Syria war, you had Israeli settlers going into Syria's land." So I asked
4. So Syria was the country where modern Israel is?
Since the war in 1948 was with (among others) Syria, and is what led to Israel's identity as a country, I assumed that you were saying that the area that Israeli settlers went into and broke away with was Syria and is what is known as Israel now. If your concern has nothing to do with 1948 and instead is focused on Israel's claim on the country of Syria post 1948, please clarify.