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Questions for Jews re: Kings and Priests

T

TrueBeliever37

Well-Known Member
rosends said:
Great, so you recognize that whoever the subject is, is only that "priest" and "king" by God's decree and since no future messiah is mentioned, the special decree can't be applied to anyone else. ANd since you prefer that translation, you see that it has nothing to do with Malki-tzedek. Great, so any connection to him is rendered moot.
Oh, wait, you start by needing this to be speaking about an unnamed and external character so you can decide that it refers to him. Well, start with error, end with error. Good luck with that.
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Well you say it applies to Abraham. Good luck with that since he was never king or priest. You start with error and end with error.

I just liked that part of the translation. Melchidzedeq is mentioned in the verse, so he does play a part in some way. You see what I was talking about earlier? How you use multiple scenarios and won't commit, so you can always find a way to bail out.
 
rosends

rosends

Well-Known Member
TrueBeliever37 said:
Well you say it applies to Abraham. Good luck with that since he was never king or priest. You start with error and end with error.
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Yes, and he was neither a king nor a priest except in the specific sense that the verse says:
"From you will emerge the priesthood and the kingship that your children will inherit from Shem your progenitor, the priesthood and the kingship, which were given to him."

As I noted earlier, this explanation is over 1000 years old and is based in an even older tradition. It is also substantiated by linguistic connections to other texts which identify the subject. You don't like it, so feel free to ignore it. I think it holds more water than your appeal to an external and unnamed character based in wishful thinking.
 
T

TrueBeliever37

Well-Known Member
rosends said:
Yes, and he was neither a king nor a priest except in the specific sense that the verse says:
"From you will emerge the priesthood and the kingship that your children will inherit from Shem your progenitor, the priesthood and the kingship, which were given to him."

As I noted earlier, this explanation is over 1000 years old and is based in an even older tradition. It is also substantiated by linguistic connections to other texts which identify the subject. You don't like it, so feel free to ignore it. I think it holds more water than your appeal to an external and unnamed character based in wishful thinking.
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Great except for the fact it doesn't say priesthood or what you said above. You are adding in so many words to make it fit what you want it to mean.
 
rosends

rosends

Well-Known Member
TrueBeliever37 said:
Great except for the fact it doesn't say priesthood or what you said above. You are adding in so many words to make it fit what you want it to mean.
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it says "forever" so unless you think the person spoken of will be immortal, then you have to see it as referring to the office, not the individual. And I'm surprised that you think this is "adding" words since you can't read the original and keep quoting translations that add in stuff and change stuff. I would think that the explanation I presented would fit in perfectly with your preference for adding things in. The difference is that I can present age old explanations that are based in the language of the text, not fanciful readings invented well afterwards to justify an external book and theology
 
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