Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!
It is obvious. But how do you see it is applied by the followers of religions? (If you see them doing this)I never saw a purple cow
I never hope to see one
If you can't prove there's no such thing
There certainly must be one
What is the logical fallacy here?
You would have to know what a purple cow is beforehand in order to recognize it.I never saw a purple cow
I never hope to see one
If you can't prove there's no such thing
There certainly must be one
What is the logical fallacy here?
Is it?It is obvious.
I haven't said that. Are you saying that?But how do you see it is applied by the followers of religions?
Figure out how you are doing it. A bit of the sliver in ones own eye matches the slivers in others eyes.It is obvious. But how do you see it is applied by the followers of religions? (If you see them doing this)
It's the fallacy of proving a negative.
One can easily "prove" that a purple cow exists by presenting one. But no one can't "prove" that a purple cow does not exist. If you think so, simply consider how you'd go about it.
A. Emperical proof No purple cows existThe casual observer might cite the "fallacy" of trying to prove a negative, but there are in fact some negatives that can be proven.
This is actually a form of "denying the antecedent," which in formal logic goes something like "If A, then B; not A, therefore, not B."
In this case, A is "proof that no purple cows exist" and B is "no purple cows exist." Then the denial of proof that no purple cows exist is put forth as evidence of the negation that no purple cows exist--in other words, that they do exist.
I have never seen a Purple cow and neither have you. Since it cant be proven to exist it must exist..I never saw a purple cow
I never hope to see one
If you can't prove there's no such thing
There certainly must be one
What is the logical fallacy here?
It is obvious. But how do you see it is applied by the followers of religions? (If you see them doing this)
I never saw a purple cow
I never hope to see one
If you can't prove there's no such thing
There certainly must be one
What is the logical fallacy here?
the question never arose as to what form would determine a pure cow exactly.You would have to know what a purple cow is beforehand in order to recognize it.
Bahais never said it in this way you are presenting it.Its more.
I never saw god/entity.
I never hope to see god
If you cant prove there's no such thing (as god)
There certainly must be one
So, basically, in my seen-experience on RF only bahai and christians have the view that because you havent seen X, you cant prove it doesnt exist. And since you cant prove it doesnt exist, it must exist.
Do you see the fallacy in that?
Not saracstic just being direct and honest.
Its more.
I never saw god/entity.
I never hope to see god
If you cant prove there's no such thing (as god)
There certainly must be one
So, basically, in my seen-experience on RF only bahai and christians have the view that because you havent seen X, you cant prove it doesnt exist. And since you cant prove it doesnt exist, it must exist.
Do you see the fallacy in that?
Not saracstic just being direct and honest.
Sagan dealt with this in his "dragon in the garage" thought experiment. I'll see if I can find it...I never saw a purple cow
I never hope to see one
If you can't prove there's no such thing
There certainly must be one
What is the logical fallacy here?
Bahais never said it in this way you are presenting it.
you tossed your emotional insistence into the line of thoughtI never hope to see one
It is just an invalid argument. The conclusion is not necessarily true. I suppose you could say nonsequitur but it is more like an inductive argument with a poorly worded, unecessary conclusion.I never saw a purple cow
I never hope to see one
If you can't prove there's no such thing
There certainly must be one
What is the logical fallacy here?
Are you suggesting that a physical object can be in two contiguous places at the same time?by proving that physical objects cannot be in two non-contiguous places at the same time