An academic has raised the possibility of Jesus Christ having had an intersex condition, of having inside lady parts:
The answer depends on which of the five principal Jesuses of the NT you're talking about.
1. The gnostic-flavored Jesus of Paul pre-existed in heaven with God, created the material universe, and was born of a Jewish woman of the line of David. The question of who fathered Paul's Jesus is never discussed; it may have been the woman's Jewish husband, since there's no suggestion otherwise. I see no need to wonder about hermaphroditism there.
2. The next Jesus we meet is that of Mark. Mark's Jesus is an ordinary Jew with ordinary parentage, not of the line of David, who did not become the son of God until God adopted him when he was baptized by JtB, in the manner God had earlier adopted David as his son in Psalm 2:7 (and see Acts 13:33). No problem there either.
3 - 4. Then we meet the Jesuses of Matthew and of Luke. Neither pre-existed in heaven. In Matthew, Mary is implied to have been a virgin at the time of conception. In Luke she's expressly a virgin.
Here there are two possibilities. The obvious one is that since Mary conceived (in both cases) as the result of an act of the Holy Ghost, that act was divine insemination, meaning that Jesus had, at the very least, God's Y-chromosome, or, a Y-chromosome devised by God for the purpose. Again, no problem there.
The second possibility is that Jesus was conceived solely by operations within the genetics of his mother ─ true parthenogenesis. But in that case he would have been genetically female, not a 'he' at all, unless we further suppose a faulty process leading to an appearance of hermaphroditism. (An article on mammalian parthenogenesis, relevant to humans, is
>here<.)
(However, Luke's Jesus (4:23) says ""Doubtless you will quote me the proverb, 'Physician, heal thyself'". This can be read as implying that Jesus had some visible defect or deformity; and if you take that view, then you could argue that the deformity was hermaphroditism. That isn't my view, but it's as close as I can get to an argument for it.)
5. That leaves the gnostic-flavored Jesus of John, who like Paul's Jesus pre-existed in heaven with God, made the material universe, and 'was made flesh' and was of the line of David, which strongly suggests he was born of Jewish parents. So, like Paul's Jesus, John's Jesus apparently raises no question of hermaphroditism.
Of course, if we leave out the supernatural elements, and we assume there was indeed an historical Jesus and that he's to some relevant extent the Jesus on which the five versions above are based, then I see no need to assume anything hermaphroditic about him at all. He would have been born of Jewish parents and the odds of hermaphroditism being involved would be as small as they are in real life.